最新的思科 微软 IBM Oracle HP 题库免费共享

免费E22-181题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E22-181
Title : EMC Legato Emailxtender Administrator Exam

1. Which EmailXtender component can be leveraged to perform archival of historic email messages from restored backup tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
A. EmailXtract
B. HealthCheck
C. Search Plug-in
Answer: A

2. Comet Investments is using an evaluation version of EmailXtender Archive Edition. Comet wants users to be able to archive their own messages using the user-directed archiving feature.
What should the EmailXtender administrator do first?
A. Buy a license for Archive Edition
B. Create a user-directed folder structure
C. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, evaluation version
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition, licensed version
Answer: D

3. What is the minimum amount of information necessary to calculate the amount of space used to collect and index email for a given timeframe?
A. Number of messages per user and number of working days
B. Number of messages per user, percentages of messages with attachments, and average attachment size
C. Number of users, average message size, number of messages per user per day, and number of working days
D. Number of users, size of mailbox, and average message size
Answer: C

4. What does Microsoft Message Queuing do in the EmailXtender environment?
A. Enables shortcut resolution
B. Holds messages before EmailXtender processes them
C. Provides storage for Lost and Found messages
D. Supports EmailXtender Web Search Client
Answer: B

5. For what does EmailXtender use its SQL database?
A. Duplicate detection
B. EmailXtender configuration
C. Full-text indexing
D. User identities
Answer: A

6. As an EmailXtender administrator, how do you promote Jane to be an administrator of your EmailXtender environment?
A. Add her to the exAdmin group
B. Add her to the supervisor group
C. Change her status from folder user to admin
D. Promote her as a domain admin
Answer: A

7. Which tool provides an estimate of the required disk space for an EmailXtender installation?
A. Archive Sizer
B. Disk Space Calculator
C. EmailXtender Sizing Calculator
D. File System Analyzer
Answer: C

8. Which regulatory objective does EmailXtender address?
A. Blocking (quarantining) of email if it contains inappropriate content
B. Ensuring privacy (encryption) of email as it moves across a public infrastructure (Internet)
C. Executing a discovery request against archived email records
D. Randomly flagging messages for review
Answer: C

9. What does the archive process do?
A. Copies all incoming or outgoing mail to a mailbox
B. Moves copied mail from the mail server to a storage location on the EmailXtender server
C. Organizes messages by content
D. Replaces messages on a mail server with pointers to the message in EmailXtender
Answer: B

10. What is a requirement for EmailXtender installation?
A. Adobe Acrobat Reader
B. EmailXtender license
C. EMC DiskXtender
D. Service account member of domain admin
Answer: D

11. EmailXtender is configured to automatically store container files to an EMC Centera device using DiskXtender.
Which retention periods are maintained when the files are moved to the Centera device?
A. Retention periods set in DiskXtender
B. Retention periods set in EmailXtender
C. Retention periods set in EMC Centera
D. Retention periods set separately for this setup
Answer: B

12. Where is information about the EmailXtender supported mail server versions located?
A. Administrator’s Guide
B. Installation Manual
C. Messaging Current Product Compatibility Guide
D. Online Help
Answer: C

13. Company XYZ is planning to buy EmailXtender Archive Edition. Its criteria is to archive all messages sent outside the company domain and exclude everything else.
What does Company XYZ need to do?
A. Configure an exclusion rule for all internal mail
B. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company
C. Configure an inclusion rule for all mail sent outside the company and an exclusion rule for all internal mail
D. Upgrade to EmailXtender Full Edition
Answer: D

14. A customer wants to use EMC Centera to archive messages from EmailXtender.
Which application is configured with EmailXtender to perform this operation?
A. Audit Utility
B. DiskXtender
C. EmailXtract
Answer: B

15. Which EmailXtender information is stored in the Windows registry?
A. Audit trail information
B. Polling rights
C. Rule refresh frequency
Answer: C

16. Which function is performed by EmailXtender Archive Edition?
A. Instant message capturing
B. Realtime archiving
C. Scheduled archiving
D. Spam email elimination
Answer: C

17. By default, when container files are imported from a different EmailXtender server, where are they placed?
A. Import folder
B. Index cabinet
C. Lost and Found
D. New cabinet
Answer: C

18. What is the purpose of a journaling mailbox in an EmailXtender environment?
A. Queue messages for indexing
B. Store messages temporarily
C. Store pointers to shortcuts
D. Transfer messages to EmailXtract
Answer: B

19. Which group membership is required for the EmailXtender service account?
A. Domain admins
B. Enterprise administrator
C. Local system administrator
D. Supervisor
Answer: A

20. The administrator changed the retention period on an EmailXtender folder.
When will this change take effect?
A. After activating changes
B. After reloading the configuration
C. At midnight
D. Immediately
Answer: A

免费下载E22-181题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的Legato Cert认证 E22-181题库，其全名为：(emc legato emailxtender administrator exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E22-181题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E22-181模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E22-181题库PDF下载链接

EMC E22-181学习指南

Legato Cert认证 E22-181考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E22-181学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E22-181考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E22-181是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E22-181考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E22-181考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E22-181试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E22-181考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E20-611题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-611
Title : EMC CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist

1. How many power supplies/blower modules are needed to start mirrored write caching on a CLARiiON CX4-480?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

2. Your customer has MirrorView installed and configured on their CX4-480, and they are installing two additional FE UltraFlex I/O modules in the array.
Will the MirrorView ports on the array need to be reconfigured and moved to the highest numbered ports on the new modules?
A. No. The CLARiiON will automatically move the ports to the highest numbered port on the array.
B. No. The ports will not need to be reconfigured; the ports will stay the same.
C. Yes. The ports will need to be auto-assigned by the SPs and moved accordingly.
D. Yes. The ports will need to be reconfigured in Navisphere Manager to the highest port numbers.
Answer: B

3. It is best practice to place the iSCSI I/O module in the I/O annex first on which CX4 model?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: D

4. On a CLARiiON CX4-480 array what is the maximum number of drives supported on each back-end loop?
A. 90
B. 120
C. 240
D. 480
Answer: B

5. Click the Exhibit button.
In which slot is the iSCSI module installed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

6. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-960 SP?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: B

7. How many UltraFlex I/O module slots are available in a CX4-960 array?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: D

8. Which CX4 array model has a maximum number of one back-end Fibre Channel port per storage processor (SP)?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: A

9. On a CLARiiON CX4-960 array what is the maximum number of drives supported on each back-end loop?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
Answer: A

10. Your customer has ordered a CX4-960 configured from the factory for only 480 drives. The customer now wants to upgrade to the 960-drive version of the CLARiiON.
What needs to happen to the CLARiiON to upgrade the CX4-960 to support the full amount of disks?
A. Need to install a software upgrade only as the I/O devices are already installed
B. Need to install the new DAE3Ps and disks only; no I/O modules or software required
C. Need to install the new I/O modules and a software upgrade to get the full supported disk amount
D. Need to install the new I/O modules only; the software is already installed for the upgrade
Answer: C

11. A customer has a DAE3P configured and running at 4 Gb/s back-end speed, and you install a 2 Gb/s-only drive in the enclosure.
What will the DAE3P do with the new drive?
A. It will add the drive at 2 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
B. It will add the drive at 4 Gb/s back-end speed with no issues and initialize it.
C. It will change the back-end speed of the entire enclosure to match the 2 Gb/s drive.
D. It will not add the drive to the loop due to the incompatible drive speed.
Answer: D

12. Which CX4 model supports SATA-II drives as vault drives?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: A

13. How many BE ports does a CX4-480 array have?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

14. How many GB of memory are installed in each CX4-480 SP?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

15. Optical cables are required for which connection(s)?
A. Fibre Channel back-end connections and all iSCSI connections
B. Fibre Channel back-end connections to disk-array enclosures (DAE)
C. Fibre Channel front-end host connection to disk-array enclosures (DAE)
D. Fibre Channel front-end host connection to storage processors (SP)
Answer: D

16. Which CX4 array model has a maximum number of two BE Fibre Channel ports per storage processor (SP)?
A. CX4-120
B. CX4-240
C. CX4-480
D. CX4-960
Answer: B

17. How many BE ports does a CX4-960 array with the expansion option have?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

18. How many fans are in a CX4-960 fan pack?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

19. What is indicated in a CX4 if the Fault LED on an SP is blinking blue at a frequency of 1 Hz?
A. FLARE is ready for I/O.
B. POST is starting the OS.
C. The FLARE drivers are starting.
D. The SP is executing POST.
Answer: C

20. Click the Exhibit button.
In the illustration, how should the I/O Annex correspond to the SPs from left to right?
A. SPA, SPA, SPB, SPB
B. SPA, SPB, SPA, SPB
C. SPB, SPA, SPB, SPA
D. SPB, SPB, SPA, SPA
Answer: D

免费下载E20-611题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-611题库，其全名为：(CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-611题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-611模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E20-611题库PDF下载链接

EMC E20-611学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E20-611考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-611学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-611考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-611是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-611考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-611考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E20-611试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-611考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E20-485题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-485
Title : Content Management Application Architecture Exam

1. You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

2. A company that develops highly-structured content via XML authoring has decided to use Documentum for its XML chunking capabilities. They are also looking to reduce the problems they have been experiencing with their existing model of authoring via a client side application and storing in a centralized store. They understand that some level of customization or specialized configuration is required.
Which action would use the least custom code in favor of configuration?
A. develop a set of forms using Forms Builder for users to author with a configured XML application for chunking
B. develop a set of extended WebPublisher components for users to author with a configured XML store for chunking
C. develop a set of extended Webtop components for users to author with a configured XML application for chunking
D. develop a set of extended Digital Asset Manager (DAM) components for users to author with a configured XML application for chunking
Answer: A

3. In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

4. Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

5. A customer needs to secure and preserve the authenticity of PDF documents by applying an electronic signature. All the PDF documents need to be identified by a unique reference corresponding to their department and function, and the reference must be system-generated. A notification system is required to alert the consumer of the documents for them to read and agree upon. If the consumer rejects the document, they should be able to select the appropriate reason for rejection.
Which product will implement the above functionality?
A. Records Manager (RM)
B. TaskSpace and Adobe Forms
C. Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM)
D. Information Rights Manager (IRM)
Answer: C

6. A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types. They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

7. A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer’s needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

8. A customer wants to reduce storage cost. The company’s infrastructure architect advises that tiered storage be implemented and certain file sizes and formats be stored in the lowest tier. The company has enterprise licenses for all Documentum products and wants to know how the architect’s recommendation can be implemented in Documentum.
Which policies can be used for this implementation?
A. containment policies
B. assignment policies
C. retention policies
D. naming policies
Answer: B

9. A Documentum customer is using Webtop to manage their documents. They want to provide read access to these documents for their 2000 customers located globally. The customer has already purchased Web Content Management (WCM) and does not want to incur any additional cost.
How can the customer meet these requirements with minimal effort?
A. create user accounts for their clients in the repository and expose Webtop outside the firewall with "read" permission on the documents for the clients
B. use WebPublisher and Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide their clients access to the website
C. use Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide their clients access to the website
D. create a customization to run a nightly job to extract documents out of the repository and copy them to a website, and provide their clients access to the website
Answer: C

10. A financial institution requests an SOA-enabled account opening process solution and has the following requirements:
-robust workflow capability with support for high-fidelity forms
-simple and configurable transaction centric interface
-seamless integration with their Global Account Management System
Which solution meets the customer’s requirements while minimizing the development effort?
A. TaskSpace, Process Suite, and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
B. Webtop, Adobe Forms Designer, and Process Suite
C. a custom solution with SOA -enabled Business Process Manager (BPM)
D. eRoom, Process Suite and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
Answer: A

11. A customer needs a solution to address a heavy volume case management requirement. All of the content attached to the cases are media files (audio/video). The key requirements are to have a simple interface focusing on core functionality, which is case processing. The customer also needs the ability for the case reviewer to see all information in a single screen, including the file attached to the case.
In addition to Process Suite, which solution would you recommend?
A. TaskSpace and Document Image Services
B. Digital Asset Manager (DAM)
C. customized TaskSpace
D. custom interface
Answer: C

12. A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer’s requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

13. A pharmaceutical company wants to implement a records management program that is cost effective. The company needs a solution that provides the following capabilities:
- ability to classify records
- ability to apply retention on records
- ability to dispose records
- ability to hold records from disposition
Which Documentum product provides these capabilities and minimizes licensing costs?
A. Records Manager Administrator (RMA)
B. Records Manager (RM)
C. Retention Policy Services (RPS)
D. Physical Records Manager (PRM)
Answer: C

14. A customer has a remote office where there is limited IT support to maintain a Documentum installation. There is a Wide Area Network with low bandwidth and high latency between the primary and the remote sites.
Which solution best provides the user with the ability to read and write frequently used content at the remote location with minimal IT support?
A. Content Server with Distributed Storage at the remote location
B. Webtop with remote users added to the express_user role
C. Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) at the remote location
D. File Share Services (FSS) at the remote location
Answer: C

15. A company has an existing website and web publishing system. They are expanding the authoring of content to non-web development staff and want to provide a simple interface where users can author content for both internal and external websites. They will need considerable flexibility in the development of the authoring interface for varied types of content but would prefer not to customize. The system should also be able to share that content with their existing web content management system.
Besides WebPublisher, which products include a user interface that can be configured and used for web-ready content authoring?
A. Webtop and Forms Builder (FB)
B. Webtop and Process Builder (PB)
C. TaskSpace and Workflow Manager
D. Digital Asset Manager (DAM) and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

16. An Enterprise Architect (EA) who has no knowledge on Documentum proposes a distributed architecture for a Document and Process Management solution. The architect suggests creating web services using SOAP 1.2 and JAX-WS, a Data Access Layer with POJO objects using Documentum Foundation Classes (DFC) and Documentum Repository. The EA believes that this architecture will yield better performance for large content transfer, and the ability to replace Documentum with any Content Management Solution (CMS) without much impact on the system.
As a Documentum application architect, you need to validate and provide input on this architecture. You must consider that the system must have reusable components and reduce development time.
What should you do?
A. approve the proposed architecture because the EA has overall knowledge about the enterprise
B. recommend building a custom solution with DFC and no web services, because DFC will give much better performance
C. recommend using DFS and extending it as needed
D. recommend building web services using the REST framework and DFC to access the Documentum Repository
Answer: C

17. You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

18. An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

19. In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

20. In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

免费下载E20-485题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-485题库，其全名为：(Content Management Application Architecture Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-485题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-485模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E20-485题库PDF下载链接

EMC E20-485学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E20-485考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-485学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-485考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-485是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-485考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-485考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E20-485试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-485考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E22-280题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC e22-280
Title : Avamar Backup and Data Deduplication Exam

1. Which level of data can be restored?
A. Directories only
B. Files only
C. Files, directories, and file systems
D. Filesystems only
Answer: A

2. What are the components of the Avamar benchmark test?
A. Random write, garbage collect performance, and HFS check performance
B. Random write, random read, and network throughput
C. Sequential write, network throughput, and backup performance
D. Sequential write, sequential read, and random seek
Answer: D

3. Click the Exhibit button.
Which EMC Avamar accelerator processes map to each item listed?
A. 1=Avagent, 2=NDMPCOPY, 3=ndmjob, 4=avtar
B. 1=Avagent, 2=avtar, 3=NDMPCOPY, 4=ndmjob
C. 1=Avagent, 2=avtar, 3=NDMPCOPY, 4=ndmjob
D. 1=Avagent, 2=ndmjob, 3=NDMPCOPY, 4=avtar
Answer: A

4. What is the function of an Avamar spare node?
A. Load balance the utility node
B. Dynamically grow capacity
C. Replace a failed data node
D. NDMP Accelerator
Answer: D

5. What does Avamar’s deduplication process accomplish?
A. Achieves maximum advantage of disk characteristics
B. Enables platform-independent data objects
C. Ensures that each data object is stored only once
D. Provides data integrity and disaster recovery protection
Answer: D

6. How does Avamar differ from traditional backup and restore solutions?
A. Backs up only unique, sub-file data objects
B. Offers one server configuration type
C. Provides four types of backup levels
D. Uses dedicated backup network
Answer: B

7. What describes the characteristics of an NDMP backup capability through an EMC Avamar accelerator?
A. Initiates a Level-1 backup to the NAS device to retrieve only change files, then uses the file cache to deduplicate data.
B. Is an active member of the EMC Avamar system’s RAIN configuration that provides a backup and recovery solution for NAS devices.
C. Stores Level 0 data in order to deduplicate subsequent backups, uses the hash cache to deduplicate data sent to the server.
D. Initiates a Level-1 backup to the NAS device to retrieve only change files, then uses the hash cache to deduplicate data.
Answer: D

8. You are configuring the network on an Avamar Data Store and need to log in as user ‘root’. What is the default operating system root password?
A. 8RttoTriz
B. calvin
C. changeme
D. P3t3rPan
Answer: C

9. You are using the Avamar Administrator console to configure replication. What is the default Avamar root password?
A. 8RttoTriz
B. calvin
C. changeme
D. P3t3rPan
Answer: A

10. Which EMC Avamar database backup option provides the fastest restore time?
A. Avamar streaming agent is installed on a proxy server and backs up directly from the database server through the network to EMC Avamar.
B. Avamar streaming agent is installed on the database server and backs up directly from the database server to EMC Avamar.
C. Database is first dumped to a local disk cache accessed directly by the Avamar server’s utility node where the Avamar agent is installed.
D. Database is dumped to a local disk cache accessed by an proxy where the Avamar agent is installed.
Answer: D

11. When backing up a MS Windows cluster using EMC Avamar, which resource needs to be excluded from the backup dataset?
A. C: drive
B. Quorom drive
C. Shared Resource
D. System32 Directory
Answer: B

12. A customer has an MS Exchange 2003 server with five Exchange databases in three storage groups. How many datasets will need to be defined to back up this Exchange environment?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

13. What describes EMC Avamar MS SQL backups?
A. Differential backups only include the transaction logs.
B. Full backups include all objects, system tables and data.
C. Incremental backups include data that has changed since the last full backup.
D. Level 1 backups include all objects and data except for system tables.
Answer: B

14. A customer has three MS SQL servers, each has four databases. How many datasets need to be created to back up all databases on all servers with EMC Avamar?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 12
Answer: A

15. What are key features of EMC Avamar?
A. Disk-based archive RAID, RAIN, clustering and replication Global deduplication
B. Global deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Disk storage
C. Global deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Auto-archive of NAS
D. OS-specific deduplication RAID, RAIN, checkpoints and replication Full, Incremental and Differential file system backups
Answer: B

16. What are the EMC Avamar typical daily change rates and performance throughputs for backing up databases?
A. 0.3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 100 GB/hr
B. 0.3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 10 GB/hr
C. 3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 100 GB/hr
D. 3% daily change rate and performance throughput of 10 GB/hr
Answer: C

17. In an EMC Avamar backup, how are Microsoft Office 2007 files processed?
A. Chunking is not performed on the files.
B. Files are chunked first, then compressed and hashed.
C. Files are compressed first, then chunked and hashed.
D. Files are uncompressed first, then chunked and hashed.
Answer: D

18. Which type of Avamar fault tolerance provides protection for node failure?
A. Checkpoint
B. RAID
C. RAIN
D. HFS Check
Answer: D

19. What is an advantage of Avamar’s deduplication technology?
A. Eliminates backup catalog
B. Improves drive speeds
C. Stores data from different OS on same devices
D. Stores unique sub-file data objects
Answer: B

20. What describes the characteristics of an EMC Avamar NDMP accelerator?
A. A component of the EMC Celerra NAS architecture that provides backup and restore capability to the EMC Avamar server
B. A specialized node that intercepts Level-1 deduplicated data from the NAS devices and passes it along to the Avamar server to provide full copies of the data
C. An active member of the EMC Avamar system’s RAIN configuration that provides a backup and recovery solution of NAS devices via the Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. A specialized node that acts as a proxy to provide a complete backup and recovery solution for NAS devices via the Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
Answer: D

免费下载E22-280题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E22-280题库，其全名为：(Avamar Backup and Data Deduplication Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E22-280题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E22-280模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E22-280题库PDF下载链接

EMC E22-280学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E22-280考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E22-280学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E22-280考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E22-280是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E22-280考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E22-280考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E22-280试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E22-280考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E20-475题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-475
Title : Content Management Systems Architecture Exam

1. Before upgrading the Content Server software, which job do you need to run to find sysobjects that point to non-existent content?
A. Content Warning
B. Consistency Checker
C. Dmclean
D. State of the Repository Report
Answer: B

2. A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer’s question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

3. Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

4. What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

5. What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

6. You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service (BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

7. Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

8. A client has a Content Server, Site Caching Services (SCS), Content Transformation Services (CTS), and Full-text Indexes installed on Windows/Oracle servers. The client wants to migrate Documentum applications to Linux.
Which statement is true?
A. The client must migrate Oracle servers to Linux.
B. SCS is not supported on Linux.
C. CTS is not supported on Linux.
D. Content Server is not supported on Linux/Oracle.
Answer: C

9. What is the supported procedure for rolling back an upgrade of Documentum Content Server?
A. uninstall the current version, then reinstall the previous version
B. run the uninstaller for the current version and run the Data Dictionary Publish job
C. remove the directory under %DOCUMENTUM%/product for the current version, change server.ini file and dm_server_config, dm_docbase_config objects
D. restore the system from backup
Answer: D

10. After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data directory.
Answer: B

11. What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

12. Which file(s) handle client configuration in D6?
A. dmcl.ini only
B. dfc.properties only
C. dmcl.ini and dfc.properties
D. dmclfull.ini only
Answer: B

13. A client wants to upgrade a repository from 5.2.5 to 5.3. The repository has 8 million content objects with an average size of 50K. The full text searching capability is required to be available within 24 hours of the repository upgrade. The Full-text Index Server is installed on a separate server. The upgrade is scheduled to happen in two months.
How can the client accomplish this objective?
A. configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
B. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes
C. configure a 5.3 Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent.
D. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent
Answer: C

14. You are tasked with performing a Content Server upgrade.
To accomplish this, you do the following:
You first make a repository copy of the production repository by installing the Content Server.
You then create a new repository.
You then copy the database and file storage areas from production to the new environment.
To be successful, what must be true of the new repository copy after this operation is complete?
A. It must have the same Docbase ID as the production repository.
B. It must have a different owner than the production repository.
C. It must project to the same Connection Broker as the production repository.
D. It must have the same Database Connection string as the production repository.
Answer: A

15. What is the recommended method for migrating Web Content Management (WCM) Page Builder templates, blueprints, managed links, and associated content from a production environment to a testing environment?
A. archive and install a DocApp
B. perform a repository-to-repository copy operation through WebPublisher
C. execute cabinet dump and load
D. use a deep export/import through WebPublisher
Answer: A

16. In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

17. A client is migrating their repositories from Windows to Linux. The database server is Oracle. The content file stores are on NAS and made available over CIFS. For the migration, the client has done the following:
installed Content Server and Oracle client on Linux using an installation owner account with the same name on Windows
copied the tnsnames.ora from Windows to Linux
configured replacement Connection Brokers
added Services entries for the repositories on the Linux Content Server environment
attached to the NAS storage using NFS
updated for each repository the web_server_loc, smtp_server, r_host_name, r_install_domain, and projection target attributes for server config using SQL to reflect the new server name
Which minimal high-level steps does the client need to take to complete the migration?
A. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%dba Windows to$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations</UL
B. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
C. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
D. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
pdate the database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
Answer: A

18. Your client’s Content Servers are running on Sun/Oracle. These servers have numerous custom applications installed and have been ugpraded several times. Security and regulatory considerations preclude the copying of certain production data to non-production systems. The client’s configuration/change management processes and systems are incomplete or missing. You are tasked with drafting a plan to copy a repository from the production environment to a development environment in preparation for an upgrade.
Which process should you use to ensure that the new development environment is as similar to the production environment as possible?
A. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
copy a subset of the production content to the development storage
B. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
use DQL/DFC applications to delete potentially sensitive data from the development environment
C. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the development environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
D. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the development environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
create a dm_location object and filestore in the production system pointing to the development storage
use the Migrate Content method with an appropriate DQL qualifier to copy a non-restricted subset of the production content to the development filestores
remove the new dm_location and dm_filestore objects
Answer: D

19. Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

20. Which statement is true about the dump and load operation?
A. Aspects associated with a dumped object are not included in the dump file.
B. Content stored in external file storage may be included in a dump file, but blob or turbo storage may not.
C. The source and target repositories must be the same version, but may use different code pages.
D. Objects in the target repository will always have the same r_object_id as the corresponding object in the source repository.
Answer: A

免费下载E20-475题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-475题库，其全名为：(Content Management Systems Architecture). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-475题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-475模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E20-475题库PDF下载链接

EMC E20-475学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E20-475考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-475学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-475考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-475是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-475考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-475考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E20-475试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-475考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E20-465题库Demo赏析

免费下载E20-465题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-465题库，其全名为：(Content Management System Administration). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-465题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-465模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E20-465题库PDF下载链接

EMC E20-465学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E20-465考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-465学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-465考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-465是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-465考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-465考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E20-465试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-465考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E20-501题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-501
Title : Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs

1. A customer backs up their Windows servers to tape. They would like to complement these backups with the ability to provide disaster recovery protection in between backups, allowing only minutes of data loss as well as the ability to recover within minutes or hours.
Which solution fits this requirement?
A. Avamar
B. Backup Advisor
C. Replication Manager
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

2. Which EMC backup and recovery solution replicates individual open and closed files, directories, and shares?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. EMC Legato
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

3. Your customer is currently using RepliStor at their main data center. They would also like to use it to copy data from their remote offices to the main data center. Their main concern is data security when copying from the remote offices.
What are the security features of RepliStor that would meet the customer’s data security need?
A. Connection, Digital Signature, Encryption
B. Digital Signature, Encryption, Data Verification
C. Encryption, Compression, Redundancy
D. Encryption, PKI, Masking
Answer: A

4. A customer wants to automate the setup and management of multiple replicas of the production database on the DMX-3 so developers can create and delete at will for aggressive application development lifecycles.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. RecoverPoint CRR
B. Replication Manager
C. RepliStor
D. SAN Copy
Answer: B

5. Which Replication Manager user role has the rights to restore replicas?
A. Database Administrator
B. Operator
C. Power Administrator
D. Power User
Answer: A

6. A customer needs a disaster recovery solution for their Exchange environment. They currently have one site running Exchange within a SAN using CX3-80 storage, and the other smaller Exchange site using DAS. They want to implement a remote recovery solution for Exchange.
What solution will you recommend?
A. Replication Manager
B. RepliStor
C. SAN Copy
D. SnapView
Answer: B

7. A corporation recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 1,600 km from their primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows and UNIX servers
CLARiiON storage system
10 TB of data to be replicated
T3 data link and 15-minute RPO
You are proposing a CLARiiON storage system for the secondary data center. Which EMC replication solution should you propose?
A. MirrorView/A
B. MirrorView/S
C. RecoverPoint CRR
D. RecoverPoint/SE
Answer: C

8. A customer wants to have automated failover during a Windows server outage, so that if the customer experiences a server outage, the recovery process will begin without human intervention.
Which EMC solution meets the customer requirement?
A. Celerra Replicator
B. NetWorker
C. RecoverPoint
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

9. Which EMC backup and recovery solution features out-of-the box integration with Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. NetWorker
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

10. XYZ Corporation has recently acquired a secondary data center that is approximately 800 km from its primary data center location. The storage environment at the primary site consists of the following:
Windows servers only
CLARiiON storage system
3 TB of data to be replicated
XYZ will purchase a CLARiiON system for the secondary data center, and they are looking for a scalable and cost-effective replication solution. Which EMC replication solution should you propose in this case?
A. MirrorView/A
B. MirrorView/S
C. RecoverPoint CRR
D. RecoverPoint/SE
Answer: D

11. A customer has an existing production CX3-80 at their primary site and a CX3-20 at a remote site 2,000 km away. They have three dedicated DS3 and four T1 connections. They need to replicate their critical databases from the primary site to the remote site. The total size of the databases is over 5 TB. They are interested in a SAN-based method to move that much data. Their requirement is a RPO of seconds to minutes.
They are currently negotiating a new WAN contract and are looking to reduce WAN bandwidth requirements. Which EMC solution do you recommend?
A. RecoverPoint CRR
B. RecoverPoint/SE
C. RepliStor
D. SAN Copy
Answer: A

12. Which protocol is used to connect the RecoverPoint Appliance and the storage array?
A. FCOE
B. Fibre
C. IP
D. iSCSI
Answer: B

13. Your customer has been using a CLARiiON CX4 array for several months and has asked you to help them design a data replication solution to their offsite facility approximately 250 km away. Their current network infrastructure can only provide them the equivalent of a T1 connection to the second facility, and they are asking for an RPO of no more than 20 minutes. They need to replicate roughly 1.75 TB of data with a change rate of less than 10%.
The solution must interoperate with Windows and Linux hosts, and maximize the limited bandwidth available to the customer today.
What replication solution would you suggest?
A. MirrorView/A
B. RecoverPoint CDP
C. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
D. SAN Copy
Answer: C

14. How would you describe Replication Manager’s chief customer benefit?
A. Allow the ability to have AS400 and mainframe hosts share the same BCV disk pool.
B. Automate the creation and management of replicas.
C. Enable consistent splits between multiple DMX-3 arrays.
D. Provide a simple GUI that allows backup applications to restore to disk.
Answer: B

15. How does SAN Copy, running on a CLARiiON system, identify other storage systems?
A. Domain ID
B. FCID
C. MAC address
D. World Wide Names
Answer: D

16. Your customer has a mission-critical Oracle database on open systems and CLARiiON that needs an improved method of local replication. The customer wants to reduce as much as possible the amount of time between the each local replica, but is concerned about the disk space needed to maintain all the replicas. They estimate that they want to support about a week of replicas, but worry about the management needed to determine the correct replica to mount.
Which product provides the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. RecoverPoint CDP
B. RepliStor
C. SAN Copy
D. SnapView
Answer: A

17. A customer has a production Microsoft SQL 2005 database server in an active-passive cluster attached to a CX3-20c with SnapView. They will be implementing a data warehouse on another SQL 2005 database server in a separate active-passive cluster also attached to the same CX3-20c for reporting and analytics.
Which product will automate the process of creating and promoting application consistent database replicas from the production server to the data warehouse server?
A. MirrorView/A
B. Navisphere
C. Replication Manager
D. VDI
Answer: C

18. Your customer has been using a CLARiiON CX4 array for several months in their Windows environment and has asked you to help them design a data replication solution to their offsite facility approximately 250 km away. Their current network infrastructure can only provide them the equivalent of a T1 connection to the second facility, and they are asking for an RPO of no more than 20 minutes. They need to replicate roughly 1.75 TB of data with a change rate of less than 10%.
The solution must scale easily and quickly to accommodate anticipated future growth, but provide them the lowest possible entry point to meet the current requirements.
Which replication solution would you suggest?
A. MirrorView/A
B. RecoverPoint CRR
C. RecoverPoint/SE CRR
D. SAN Copy
Answer: C

19. Which RecoverPoint feature provides local synchronous replication between LUNs that reside in one or more arrays at the same site?
A. CDP
B. CRR
C. RPA
D. RPSD
Answer: A

20. You have a customer with a remote facility containing only three Windows servers. They recently had their backup tapes fail, and they would like to implement a solution that removes tape from the remote facility, minimizes bandwidth utilization, and keeps the data secure when traveling across the network. If possible, they would like to use existing Windows servers in their data center to replicate the data to.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. AutoStart
B. Avamar
C. Disk Library
D. RepliStor
Answer: D

免费下载E20-501题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-501题库，其全名为：(Commercial Storage & Info Infrastructure Exam for Tech Archs). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-501题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-501模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E20-501题库PDF下载链接

EMC E20-501学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E20-501考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-501学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-501考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-501是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-501考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-501考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E20-501试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-501考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E22-315题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E22-315
Title : Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies

1. What is the recommended configuration for a Celerra ATA disk-array enclosure that will be used as a backup-to-disk target?
A.RAID 3 4+1
B.RAID 3 7+1
C.RAID 5 4+1
D.RAID 5 7+1
Answer: C

2. In order to increase effective usable capacity on an EMC Disk Library, which feature is available?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Auto Archive
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Virtual Tape Library Compression
Answer: D

3. Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Investment protection, space issues, and portability
C.Portability, recovery speed, and ease of use
D.TCO/ROI, company reputation, and investment protection
Answer: A

4. What does N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV) functionality provide to a DL4200?
A.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in a switched fabric environment
B.Disk library failover on a multilibrary configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
C.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in a switched fabric environment
D.Engine failover on a multinode configuration in an arbitrated loop environment
Answer: C

5. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has a DL4200 connected to two switches in the same fabric, as shown in the exhibit. Windows Backup Server X is zoned to port 1 on Engine A and Windows Backup Server Y is zoned to port 7 on Engine B. Active Engine Failover has been configured and is active.
Both backup servers are performing backups at the same time to their respective engines. Engine A has a failure and all virtual services fail over to Engine B.
The backup administrator has verified that failover has occurred as expected but Backup X is unable to see its virtual resources through the surviving engine even after rescanning the SCSI bus.
What is the problem?
A.Engine to switch cabling is incorrect
B.Engines are connected to different switches
C.Lack of PowerPath configuration on the backup servers
D.Missing EMC NetWorker DL-Failover license
Answer: A

6. Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Auto Archive
B.Direct Access
C.Duplication
D.Remote copy
Answer: A

7. An EMC NetWorker customer is using a file type device for backup-to-disk. What will happen if the file type device fills up?
A.Save is suspended and expired save sets on the volume are deleted
B.The device expands automatically and the save operation continues
C.The save operation is aborted and a new volume is selected for writing
D.The volume is marked full and save continues on a new volume
Answer: D

8. What are the major components of an EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC disk drives, EMC Disk Library solutions, and EMC Disk Library services
B.EMC Disk Library appliance, EMC Disk Library, CLARiiON, and EMC Disk Library server
C.EMC Disk Library, EMC Disk Library client, and EMC Disk Library Console
D.EMC Disk Library, EMC Tape Library, and EMC Disk Library server
Answer: C

9. How do the EMC Disk Library DL4×06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

10. A customer with a Linux backup server plans to use a CLARiiON as the target for backups. What should be recommended for adequate I/O performance?
A.Set the read cache to the maximum limit
B.Set the storage element to 256 KB
C.Use a cache page size of 64 KB
D.Use fdisk to correct disk misalignment
Answer: D

11. A customer wants to implement a solution that would allow maximum availability for backups to complete. Which EMC Disk Library feature will provide maximum availability for their backup solution?
A.Active Engine Failover
B.Backup Engine Failover
C.CLARiiON Engine Failover
D.Passive Engine Failover
Answer: A

12. Which EMC Disk Library feature allows export to physical tape media?
A.Advanced Copy
B.Auto Archive
C.Remote copy
D.Tape Migration
Answer: B

13. Where can an EMC Disk Library provide the best value to a customer?
A.Backup and restore speed, capacity, and reliability
B.Portability, investment protection, and TCO/ROI
C.Recovery speed, ease of use, and company reputation
D.Reliability, ease of use, and portability
Answer: A

14. Which type of connectivity is required from a backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.Copper Network
B.Ethernet NAS
C.Fibre Channel
D.IP NAS
Answer: C

15. How do the EMC Disk Library DL4×06 models provide improved data availability and resiliency?
A.1 TB hard drives
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Hardware compression
D.RAID 6
Answer: D

16. A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library in the primary data center and one EMC Disk Library in the remote data center. What is the recommended feature to use to provide backup application catalog consistency between two data centers?
A.ACSLS
B.Active Engine Failover
C.Consolidated Media Management
D.Remote copy
Answer: C

17. Which EMC Disk Library models support ACSLS?
A.DL210, DL4100, DL4106
B.DL4100, DL4106, DL6100
C.DL4106, DL210, DL6100
D.DL6100, DL210, DL4100
Answer: B

18. Which type of connectivity is required from the backup host to the EMC Disk Library?
A.CIFS
B.Fibre Channel
C.Internet Protocol
D.NFS
Answer: B

19. A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually expire without TSM involvement.
What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery site?
A.Active Tape Migrator
B.Compression
C.Remote Copy
D.Tape Capacity-on-Demand
Answer: C

20. What should be used to configure and manage the EMC Disk Library?
A.EMC ControlCenter for EMC Disk Library
B.EMC Disk Library Console software
C.EMC Disk Library Navisphere software
D.Management is integrated with the backup application
Answer: B

免费下载E22-315题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E22-315题库，其全名为：(Disk Library and Backup to Disk Technologies). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E22-315题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E22-315模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E22-315题库PDF下载链接

EMC E22-315学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E22-315考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E22-315学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E22-315考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E22-315是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E22-315考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E22-315考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E22-315试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E22-315考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费e20-817题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-817
Title : Symmetrix Business Continuity Expert Exam for Storage Admins

1. Your client has 10 large Microsoft Exchange servers. Currently, the backups to tape are not completing in the backup window. The database cannot be stopped, and the client has no capacity to increase the number of tape drives available.
How will you help solve the clients problem and provide the shortest possible backup window?
A.Add local BCVs to the Exchange Server disk and use TF/EIM to perform parallel backups.
B.Replicate the data to a disaster recovery site and use TF/SIM to perform tape backups.
C.Use TF/EIM to perform parallel backups directly to tape.
D.Use the EMC EDM product to call the Microsoft Exchange Online Backup API to back up the data to tape.
Answer: A

2. A company migrates their Windows 2003 Exchange servers. After this has been completed the systems administrator notes that performance has degraded on one of the Exchange servers. Analysis indicated that the system is performing two reads or writes for transactions 15% of the time.
What is the probable cause?
A.Block size is too small.
B.Read cache is turned off.
C.Sectors are misaligned.
D.Stripe size is too small.
Answer: C

3. You are designing an SRDF service level plan for a customer. Their needs assessment shows the following:
Performance: Remote replication with potential impact, depending on distance and network latency for synchronous leg
Availability: Zero data exposure in the event of a source failure; no data loss on a single point of failure
Functionality: Continuous real-time mirroring on synchronous leg, Unlimited distances with no additional host impact for asynchronous leg, and the ability to synchronize between two remote sites
Economics: Requires sufficient bandwidth to support peak workload requirements
Which SRDF mode of operation should be chosen?
A.SRDF/A
B.SRDF/DM
C.SRDF/S
D.SRDF/Star
Answer: D

4. A customer running SRDF/Star experienced a workload site failure. Production was switched from the workload site A to the synchronous target site B. Some time later, site A came back online. Before switching production back to site A, a symdev show command is executed to examine the R1 devices at site A.
What is the RDF configuration state that describes the relationship of the RDF devices between A and B?
A.Duplicate
B.Half
C.Normal
D.Partitioned
Answer: A

5. Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram shows a planned Star configuration with two Symmetrix arrays at each site. The options file to be used for setting up Star is shown on the left.
RDF Groups 5 and 6 on arrays A1 and A2 connect to arrays B1 and B2.
RDF Groups 15 and 16 on arrays A1 and A2 connect to arrays C1 and C2.
RDF Groups 55 and 56 on arrays B1 and B2 connect to arrays C1 and C2.
Which RDF groups in the configuration should be assigned the name SiteB?
A.5 and 15
B.5 and 6
C.55 and 56
D.6 and 16
Answer: B

6. A customer wants to create a disaster recovery solution for SQL 2005 on a DMX-3 2500 Symmetrix with the best possible recovery point objective (RPO).
What needs to be implemented to provide both restartable and recoverable replicas without taking the SQL Server offline?
A.Local BCV/R1s, split BCVs with Replication Manager using VDI and use SRDF Adaptive Copy
B.SRDF/A and use BCVS with consistent split
C.SRDF/S and split BCVs using consistent split
D.SRDF/S, split BCVs with Replication Manager using VDI
Answer: D

7. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has been using TF/SIM tsimsnap2 from the production server to back up the SQL Server database in the remote snap environment. There was a request to add more devices in the environment for a new database. The storage administrator added R1, R2, and the new VDEVs. A new DBA ran the tsimsnap2 command from the production server. The tsimsnap2 backup failed.
What needs to be done to complete the backup?
A.Synchronize the R1 and R2 devices, create the snap sessions, and rerun tsimsnap2.
B.Synchronize the R1 and R2 devices, and rerun tsimsnap2.
C.Activate the snap sessions, and rerun tsimsnap2.
D.Shut down the newly added database on the production server, and rerun tsimsnap2.
Answer: A

8. A customer has a mission-critical Microsoft Exchange implementation. They decide to deploy a remote DR site, using TF/EIM with SRDF. After a remote backup using Exbackup2003, the fileheader of the datafile is examined with eseutil, only to discover that the state is listed as Dirty Shutdown.
The customer states that no power outages occurred, and the SRDF link was up continuously. What could be causing the Dirty Shutdown flag?
A.The Dirty Shutdown flag indicates that the storapi daemon must have been shut down during the TF/EIM backup.
B.The Dirty Shutdown flag is caused by a physically consistent copy of a logically inconsistent Exchange database. This is normal for Exchange.
C.The Dirty Shutdown flag is caused by a physically inconsistent copy of a logically consistent Exchange database. This is not the normal behavior for Exchange.
D.The customer did not follow EMC best practice guidelines when designing their Enterprise Exchange layout. During the TF/EIM backup of Exchange, the Symmetrix reached its cache stress threshold, invoking the LRU algorithm to flush dirty pages to disk.
Answer: B

9. An application has a BC requirement of two independent full concurrent copies of production each night. One copy is mounted up for backup and recovery (BURA); the other is mounted up on a target server for data warehouse operations.
The current STD device configuration is a four-member mirrored meta. The current BCV device configuration is a four-member unprotected meta. The Symmetrix has global hot sparing enabled.
Which local EMC replication product(s) will enable the same number of replications as well as an additional SRDF device?
A.Symmetrix Optimizer
B.TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap
D.TimeFinder/SRDF
Answer: B

10. Your 7×24 customer runs SRDF/A and has several Oracle databases. They want to perform backups at the remote site creating backups that provide a recoverable database.
Arrange the events in order using best practices to accomplish the backup.
[1] Establish BCVs to the R2 devices.
[2] Place the Oracle tablespace(s) in hot backup mode.
[3] Use the symrdf checkpoint command.
[4] Split the BCVs from the R2 devices.
[5] Take the tablespace(s) out of hot backup mode.
[6] Force the database to archive the current online redo log.
A.2, 5, 3, 1, 6, 4
B.2, 1, 3, 5, 6, 4
C.3, 2, 1, 4, 5, 6
D.3, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Answer: A

11. A customer has a 5 (five) node Microsoft cluster (MSCS) that spans across 2 (two) sites over a SRDF/A link. Site A, the primary site, contains 3 (three) nodes. Site B, the remote site, contains 2 (two) nodes. If the customer is using SRDF/CE with Majority Note Set (MNS), what happens to the nodes at Site A if communication is lost between the 2 (two) sites?
A.Nodes at Site A and Site B will go offline until communication resumes to Site B. The nodes at both sites need to be started manually, and the /ForceQuorum switch must be used.
B.Nodes at Site A will go offline until communication resumes to Site B. The nodes at Site A need to be started manually and the /ForceQuorum switch must be used.
C.Nodes at Site A will go offline until the nodes at Site A are manually started and the /ForceQuorum switch is used.
D.Nodes will remain online.
Answer: D

12. A customer wants to deploy a Replication Manager (RM) environment to control SRDF data replication of Oracle 10g databases on four (4) SAN-attached Solaris 10 servers.
What is the viable option for deploying RM components?
A.RM Client on one of the Solaris database servers and RM Servers and Consoles on all four Solaris database servers
B.RM Server on a LAN-attached Windows server, RM Clients on all four Solaris database servers, and RM Consoles on RM users Windows XP desktops
C.RM Server on at least two SAN-attached Windows servers, replication databases and RM Clients on the four Solaris database servers, and RM Consoles on RM users Windows XP desktops
D.RM Server, Console, and Client on a Windows server and DBMS/FS Agents on the four Solaris database servers
Answer: B

13. A customer is deploying TF/SIM to create remote replicas of Symmetrix devices that hold their production SQL Server 2005 database. The synchronous SRDF R1-R2 pairs that contain the database files are synchronized.
The customer created RBCVs on the remote Symmetrix to be used as the replicas. These replicas are in turn mounted on a host connected to the remote Symmetrix for development purposes.
Which state do the RBCVs need to be in for tsimsnap backup with the -mountonly option to run successfully on the remote host?
A.Established and not mounted on the backup host
B.It doesn’t matter, tsimsnap will do what is needed to get the BCVs to the desired state
C.Split and mounted on the backup host
D.Split and not mounted on the backup host
Answer: C

14. Click the Exhibit button.
During the design process of a Star implementation, a customer expresses the intention to switch production to one of the target sites as part of a disaster drill. After the production has been switched, the customer wishes to run Star protection at this site.
What should you advise?
A.It does not matter which site the customer switches production to, because Star protection cannot be enabled when the workload is running at a target site.
B.Servers and management hosts may be provided at either site, because Star protection can be enabled while the workload is running at either target site.
C.Servers and management hosts should be provided at site B, because Star protection can only be enabled if the workload is switched to the Synchronous target site.
D.Servers and management hosts should be provided at site C, because Star protection can only be enabled if the workload is switched to the Asynchronous target site.
Answer: C

15. Click on the Exhibit.
In an SRDF/Star implementation, the Connected state indicates which condition has occurred?
A.Both links are transmitting data, but one or both target sites are not fully synchronized with the workload site
B.The RDF relationship is not properly defined or there is no data flow between the sites.
C.The RDF relationship is properly defined, but the target site in question is not synchronized with the workload site and there is no consistency protection for the remote data.
D.The RDF relationship is properly defined, dependent write consistency of the data at the synchronous target site is assured through RDF-ECA and dependent write consistency at the asynchronous target is assured through MSC.
Answer: A

16. A company has a five-node MSCS cluster running SRDF/CE with three nodes at the primary site and two nodes at the secondary site. The sites are 10 km apart. Due to capacity requirement changes, additional storage is needed.
What must be done to the cluster after the storage configuration changes?
A.No action is required with MSCS after storage provisioning. All storage configuration updates are propagated automatically via the COM server to the cluster nodes.
B.SRDF/CE cluster requires use of the COM server that must be restarted after all configuration changes. Once a change is made to a node configuration, it will send out a message to all other cluster node members after the service restarts.
C.The clusters must be rebooted, and a complete rescan of the system bus is required. Any current patches should be applied at this time.
D.Update the SRDF/CE database by issuing a Symmetrix SRDF/CE Discover through the console or manually setting symcli_db_file to srdfcesymapi.db followed by the symcfg discover command.
Answer: D

17. Your customer requests an immediate point-in-time copy of their production Oracle database but cannot have the application brought down.
Which Enginuity feature allows the creation of restartable copies without quiescing the database?
A.Double Checksum
B.Enginuity Consistency Assist
C.Multi-Session Consistency
D.Symmetrix Differential Data Facility
Answer: B

18. A customer is running Oracle 10g. The DBA is planning on adding a device to the ASM data disk group. After the device has been added to the ASM disk group, what is needed to create a viable point-in-time TimeFinder copy?
A.Add a device to the TimeFinder device group to match the ASM disk group.
B.Add an additional device to the RDF target.
C.Split the ASM disk group, then start the ASM instance.
D.The ASM disk group will split automatically enabling synchronization of the disk group with the TimeFinder device group.
Answer: A

19. BCVs are configured to create the restartable copy of the Oracle database. The last BCV split was done at 10 A.M. Database transactions were performed on the production database. At 11:15 A.M. the DBA realized that transactions were committed incorrectly.
What is the quickest method to restore the database back to the last restartable copy?
A.Perform an incremental restore of the BCVs to the STD devices and start the primary database.
B.Shut down the primary database, perform a full restore of BCVs to the standard devices, and start the primary database.
C.Shut down the primary database, perform an incremental restore of BCVs to the standard devices, and start the primary database.
D.Shut down the primary database, perform an incremental restore of BCVs to the standard devices, restore the backup control and archive log files, and recover and start the primary database.
Answer: C

20. A company had their SRDF links go down while the R1BCV was in the process of synchronizing with the STDR2. A few minutes later the TimeFinder Integration Module for Exchange found inconsistencies in the information store of the local STDR1 device. The SRDF link comes back up.
What must the storage administrator do next?
A.Restore the STD from the STDR2.
B.Establish the R1BCV with the STDR2.
C.Keep the data from becoming unusable at the remote location.
D.Split the BRBCV from the STDR2.
Answer: A

免费下载e20-817题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-817题库，其全名为：(Symmetrix Business Continuity Expert Exam for Storage Admins). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-817题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-817模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的e20-817题库PDF下载链接

EMC e20-817学习指南

EMC Certification认证 e20-817考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-817学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-817考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-817是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-817考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-817考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师e20-817试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-817考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费e20-822题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-822
Title : CLARiiON Solutions Expert
Exam for Storage
Administrators

1. Click the Exhibit button.
The application using LUN 21 performs mainly 16 kB I/O operations. What is true of LUN 21?
A. Read performance would improve if read cache was increased from 250 MB to 500 MB
B. The application performs mainly read-modify-write-read operations
C. The read cache hit ratio is above 50%
D. The read I/O access pattern is largely random
Answer: D

2. A customer has set up a disaster recovery site 50 miles (81 km) away from their production site. The customer is using MirrorView/S over IP with the Write Intent Log enabled. In addition, they have a dedicated 45 Mb/s line with a latency of 2 ms. During the testing of the automated solution for disaster recovery, an administrator accidentally disables the Write Intent Log. What is the likely outcome of this error if a secondary image becomes fractured?
A. The fracture log will continue to maintain a log of changed blocks.
B. The fracture log will continue to persistently maintain a log of changed blocks.
C. The Write Intent Log will flush all records of changes.
D. The Write Intent Log will hold change records up to the point where it was disabled.
Answer: A

3. A customer has a 300 GB application LUN on which they would like to take a snapshot. The LUN will later be presented to a backup host for testing. The production LUN stays idle during the backup test. The testing process performed by the backup host is write intensive and will change all the data on the LUN during the test period. What is the minimum required Reserved LUN Pool size?
A. 220 GB
B. 420 GB
C. 620 GB
D. 820 GB
Answer: B

4. A customer wants to make local copies of their application data files for fast recovery in the event of corruption. The copies should cause minimal disruption to the application. Their chief scientist has a process of continual hardware updates and beta testing that often corrupts their application data.
What is the most efficient solution for this environment?
A. Create a script that takes a clone to use as a Gold Copy and create snapshots of the clone for testing.
B. Create two scripts; one that takes a snapshot of the database every 4 hours for testing and another that takes a clone to use as a Gold Copy.
C. Create a script to take a daily clone of the database for testing and take snapshots every 4 hours for use as a Gold Copy.
D. Create a script that creates two clones; one as a Gold Copy and one for testing.
Answer: A

5. A customer needs to double the size of an existing volume for a Windows 2003 basic disk using the CLARiiON virtual LUN technology. The LUN participates in a MirrorView/S relationship. The destination MirrorView/S LUN also belongs to a test server’s storage group. What does the storage administrator need to do to increase the size of the LUN?
A. 1. As long as the mirror is not in a synchronizing state, the virtual LUN migration can be performed at any time.
2. Create the desired LUN size on the source and target array.
3. Perform the virtual LUN migration on each.
4. Perform diskpart on the Windows basic disk to extend the file system.
B. 1. As long as the mirror is not in a synchronizing state, the virtual LUN migration can be performed at any time.
2. Create the desired LUN size on the source and target array.
3. Remove the source and target LUNs from their storage groups and perform the virtual LUN migration on each.
4. Perform diskpart on the Windows basic disk to extend the file system.
C. 1. Break the MirrorView relationship and destroy the mirror.
2. Create the desired LUN size on the source and target arrays and perform the LUN migration on the source LUN.
3. Remove the target LUN from the storage group and proceed with the virtual LUN migration on the target.
4. Perform diskpart on the Windows basic disk to extend file system.
5. Re-create the mirror and start the MirrorView session.
D. 1. Stop the MirrorView session and create the desired LUN size on the source and target arrays.
2. Perform the virtual LUN migration on the source LUN.
3. Remove the target LUN from the storage group and proceed with the virtual LUN migration on the target.
4. Perform diskpart on the Windows basic disk to extend file system.
5. Start the MirrorView session.
Answer: C

6. Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A. CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B. CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C. MirrorView connection failed
D. SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

7. A customer has decided to implement a DR solution using CLARiiON storage. The target storage will be located 15 miles (24 km) from the source storage, which will be connected by Fibre Channel. There is no IP connectivity to the DR site for CLARiiON management. The site will require the use of a modem for management and monitoring. Which Event Monitor architecture should be used?
A. Centralized
B. Distributed
C. Mixed
D. Out-of-band
Answer: A

8. A customer runs its critical Oracle environment through a Fibre Channel connection to a CX3-40c. In order to leverage the existing iSCSI connections, management decides to allocate a small amount of storage to support several Windows file servers. The customer needs to make certain that the Oracle SLA is not impacted by the non-critical Windows file servers. Which solution do you recommend?
A. Use Navisphere Quality of Service Manager to set limits on applications connected through iSCSI
B. Change the write aside cache value for Windows LUNs
C. Use Navisphere Service Taskbar to assign a higher SLA to the Oracle environment
D. CX3-40c will automatically assign higher priority to FC connections over iSCSI
Answer: A

9. A customer has a new cost-cutting policy in place and as a result will have data center personnel present only during normal working hours; 8 A.M to 5 P.M. This means that backups will be performed during normal office hours. Backups currently take 6 hours to complete.
You explain the benefit of SnapView in backup environments. The customer wants a solution that will allow its backup to be run during work hours and will have minimal performance impact on its application. The customer also wants to be able to recover from corruption of its application data in a short time; preferably less than 1 hour. You recommend the use of a clone but the customer wants to use a snapshot. You explain the performance implications but the customer wants to see numerical proof.
The customer database LUN sees random 8 KB I/Os at a rate of 500 IOPS with the read/write ratio at 4:1. Which calculations should be presented to the customer as validation?
Copy on First Write (COFW)
Reserved LUN Pool (RLP)
A. COFW during the day will cost one random 8 kB read of the production LUN and one random 8 kB write to the RLP for each 8 KB of data written to the database. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the production LUN and RLP.
B. COFW during the day will cost 100 random 8 kB reads/s of the production LUN and 200 64 kB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the production LUN and RLP.
C. COFW during the day will cost 100 random 64 kB reads/s of the production LUN. The load on the RLP will be 100 64 kB writes/s and 200 8 kB writes/s. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the Production LUN and RLP.
D. COFW during the day will cost 100 sequential 64 kB writes/s of the production LUN and 200 64 kB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional random reads of the production LUN and RLP.
Answer: C

10. A customer has two 50 GB MirrorView/S mirrored LUNs between two CX3-40s without a Write Intent Log. LUN1 is on SP A and LUN2 is on SP B. The two CX3-40s are connected via dedicated Fibre Channel links.
During the nightly maintenance window, the connection between SP A on the local array and SP A on the remote array is lost for 2 minutes. SP B is unaffected. When the customer logs in the next morning, they notice that LUN1 has a status of "attention" and is still fractured.
What caused this behavior?
A. Auto recovery is not possible on the CLARiiON
B. Missing Write Intent Log
C. Recovery policy is set to Manual
D. SP A set the affected front-end FC port administratively down
Answer: C

11. A customer has an SQL database that initiates a clone for reporting nstance by accounting The clone is mounted read-only on an alternate host. The production LUN is RAID 1/0 and is 750 GB in size.
The SP event logs indicate that the clone LUN was trespassed during the synchronization. What is the status of the clone?
A. Peer SP continues the operation but the clone is corrupt
B. Peer SP fractures the clone and will need manual resynchronization
C. Peer SP halts the operation and the clone is now corrupted
D. Peer SP will continue the synchronization and the clone remains usable
Answer: D

12. You are a storage administrator who has been tasked with sizing a database LUN for an Exchange 2007 mailbox server. You have been provided with the following information regarding basic capacity requirements:
450 users
200 MB mailbox size
2.5 MB mail sentday
Deleted items retained for 14 days
Deleted mailboxes retained for 30 days
You have also been provided with additional information regarding usage and maintenance processes:
Online maintenance takes 3 days to complete
Approximately five mailboxes are deleted during an average month
Content indexing will not be performed
Offline maintenance will be performed on a separate LUN
Which approximate LUN size will satisfy the listed requirements and still allow for 20% yearly growth?
A. 145 GB
B. 175 GB
C. 355 GB
D. 455 GB
Answer: B

13. A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer’s site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the appropriate LUNs?
A. Create the appropriate storage groups
B. Disable Access Logix
C. Enable Access Logix
D. Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

14. A company has requested an independent consultant to develop and implement a security model for the CLARiiON storage platform. The company has limited access to the administrator role by removing rights for all accounts. However, they would like to keep the single administrator role account for top level management.
Management of user security should not be done by the administrator role user. In addition, the storage object administrators should not be able to change user security when using the Secure CLI. CLARiiON storage systems are located in a protected data center with limited physical access.
Which method should be employed to manage user security?
A. Create a Security Administrator role user and create a Manager role user account for storage object managers.
B. Create a Security Administrator role user, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account for storage object managers.
C. Implement security using PKI certificates, create a Security Administrator role user, and enable the CLI filter.
D. Implement security using PKI certificates, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account for storage object managers.
Answer: B

15. Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows part of the etlun output from LUN 21. What can be concluded from the output?
A. The I/O activity is not causing forced flushes
B. The information was captured from 10 (ten) 2-minute polling intervals
C. The number of 256 kB reads is identical to the number of 256 kB writes
D. The number of 8 kB reads is double the number of 8 kB writes
Answer: C

16. A large warehousing company has two CLARiiONs with two LUNs set up and each is mirrored with MirrorView/A over DWDM. The two sites are less than 1 km away.
The company is currently running an OLTP database on a 300 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN and its logging on a 150 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN. The I/O read/write ratio is 2:1 with a 2 kB average I/O size.
The customer notices that at peak times the latency becomes an issue as their users start to complain about poor performance. What is your recommendation?
A. Check the fibre for faults
B. Upgrade the CLARiiON model
C. Use Incremental SAN Copy
D. Use MirrorView/S
Answer: D

17. A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric Active/Active features of the software?
A. PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B. PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C. PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D. PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

18. An AIX administrator requests an additional LUN for a development server. The server already has existing LUNs allocated from the CLARiiON array. The storage administrator creates the desired LUN size, masks it to the AIX host, and notifies the AIX administrator.
The AIX administrator runs cfgmgr to rescan new disks and notices the appropriate number of logical hdisks. However, the AIX administrator is unable to add the logical hdisks to the desired volume group.
What should be done to ensure the new LUN is read/write ready?
A. Execute powermt check from the host to create the emcpower#
B. Execute powermt config from the host to create the hdiskpower#
C. Execute powermt load from the host to create the emcpower#
D. Execute powermt restore from the host to create the disk slices
Answer: B

19. A customer has a new development environment. They have purchased a CLARiiON that will be used for HP-UX-only systems. After completing the necessary cabling and zoning, they are ready to configure their first host.
The customer does not want to use PowerPath and would like to use HP-UX native PVLinks for a multipathing solution. The storage administrator has allocated storage and can see both paths when performing an ioscan on the host. However, when the administrator attempts to pvcreate one side of the disks, the command times out and returns an error.
What is the problem?
A. The Auto-Assign is set to disabled
B. The default SP owner is incorrect
C. The failovermode option is set incorrectly
D. There is a zone misconfiguration
Answer: C

20. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is complaining that SAN Copy sessions from CLARiiON-A to CLARiiON-B take substantially longer than from those to CLARiiON-C. All hosts have 4 Gb/s HBAs. All Cisco equipment is base hardware configurations.
Which component is causing the issue?
A. 9020s
B. 9216
C. HBAs
D. Hosts
Answer: B

免费下载e20-822题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-822题库，其全名为：(CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-822题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-822模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的e20-822题库PDF下载链接

EMC e20-822学习指南

EMC Certification认证 e20-822考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-822学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-822考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-822是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-822考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-822考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师e20-822试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-822考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E22-310题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E22-310
Title : DiskXtender for Windows Exam

1. Files that were deleted from the extended drive cannot be recovered from the DiskXtender Recycle Bin. The recycle bin is enabled, but its empty schedule is not configured. Why is the recycle bin empty?
A.The end user deleted the files and therefore they would not appear in the recycle bin.
B.The file has to be restored from a backup first.
C.The files have not been purged yet.
D.The files were deleted using a Privileged Delete.
Answer: D

2. Ajax Investments is using the multi-target migration feature of DiskXtender to migrate file data to EMC Centera and Tape media. Which media services must be installed in this environment?
A.EMC Centera and ACSLS
B.EMC Centera Backup and Recovery Module
C.EMC Centera Backup and Recovery Module and MediaStor
D.NAS and EMC Centera
Answer: B

3. A company currently uses an archiving solution to manage its storage. In addition to archiving, what else should the company implement to prepare for disaster recovery?
A.Antivirus appliance
B.Backup software
C.Compression software
D.Encryption software
Answer: B

4. A customer deployed DiskXtender for Windows in their environment and archives the data to NAS and EMC Centera. The files in their environment change once every 30 days.
How many versions of each file are managed by DiskXtender 100 days after deployment?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: A

5. The DiskXtender license has expired and the Log file shows the following error message:
ERR 02/19 20:15:59 (0A50) [Dm_Agent.cpp, 1987] license has expired. File migration functionality is now disabled (16553).
Which statement is correct?
A.DiskXtender cannot be used for any type of operation.
B.It is still possible for a user to fetch migrated data.
C.It is still possible to use file migration if the target is EMC Centera.
D.No tape operation is possible.
Answer: B

6. Which environment could benefit most from an archive solution?
A.The files are deleted often.
B.The files are often accessed.
C.The files are often requested for recovery to a point in time.
D.The files are rarely modified.
Answer: D

7. A move rule had been configured with an age delay of 30 days from create time. It is 90 days past the create time and files are not moving and there are no files in the move list. What needs to be done to add the files to the move list?
A.Add media to the move group
B.Run a background scan
C.Run a metadata export
D.Set tracing on the move rule
Answer: B

8. A customer using a non-extended attribute aware backup solution notices metadata exports are as large as the current extended drive used space. How can their metadata exports be optimized?
A.Set metadata export to include files from media folders only
B.Set metadata export to include files not in media folders
C.Schedule incremental metadata exports
D.Set metadata exports to export managed files only
Answer: D

9. Which rules always take precedence?
A.Exclusion rules
B.Inclusion rules
C.Index rules
D.Rules that are listed first in the DiskXtender administrator interface
Answer: A

10. The DiskXtender virtual server failed over to the second node. The extended drive is running out of space and the associated media are nearly full. What needs to be done to add new media?
A.Create a new move rule
B.Fail back to the primary node
C.Manually create media on the standby node
D.Use the auto-create media function on the standby node
Answer: B

11. What is a benefit of file system archiving?
A.Allows data to be restored to a point in time
B.Provides encryption protection
C.Provides for disaster recovery
D.Reduces backup times
Answer: D

12. Click the Exhibit button.
As displayed in the exhibit, a File System Manager configuration has two media groups, Centera and NAS. Two move rules are configured, one for each media group, and listed in the order displayed in the exhibit.
If the file Medical.GIF qualifies for a move, to which media will the file be migrated?
A.Both EMC Centera and NAS
B.EMC Centera media only
C.NAS media only
D.Neither
Answer: C

13. Company ABC is planning its storage management using DiskXtender for Windows. It decided to use Retained NAS media for the secondary storage. Which retention settings are available?
A.Retention Class, Retention Period, and Infinite Retention
B.Retention Period
C.Retention Period and Infinite Retention
D.Retention Period and Retention Class
Answer: B

14. An IT administrator installed DiskXtender on a file server. After 30 days, files stop migrating. What is the cause?
A.DiskXtender needs to be restarted once a month.
B.Evaluation license has expired.
C.MediaStor has not been installed.
D.Search Module has not been installed.
Answer: B

15. Three move rules are created in the following order:
1. Move all PDF files to Tape media
2. Move all files to EMC Centera media
3. Exclude all PDF files
What will the behavior of File System Manager be with regard to the file MyFile.pdf?
A.File is excluded from migration.
B.File is migrated to both Tape and EMC Centera media.
C.File is migrated to EMC Centera media.
D.File is migrated to Tape media.
Answer: A

16. After a brief network outage users cannot fetch files. The fetch schedule is active. The media is online and there is ample space on the extended drive. DiskXtender has full control of the files. What needs to be done to resume fetching?
A.Flush the pending transactions
B.Restart the DiskXtender services
C.Run a background scan
D.Run an incremental metadata export
Answer: A

17. Which DiskXtender media service type is used to manage tape media?
A.ACSLS
B.EMC Centera Backup and Recovery Module (CBRM)
C.NAS
D.TSM
Answer: B

18. Who is the primary target audience for the DiskXtender Search Module?
A.CIO
B.End users and security officers
C.End users
D.Security officers and IT managers
Answer: D

19. A customer notices migrations suddenly stopped. End users can still fetch files. They have not changed anything in their configuration. What could be the cause?
A.The customer has exceeded their license capacity.
B.The delete rule was not executed.
C.The index rule was not executed.
D.The purge rule was not executed.
Answer: A

20. Company ABC configured its data to be purged from the extended drive based on purge start and stop watermarks. If a file is qualified for purging, when will the file be purged from the extended drive?
A.Daily at 12 A.M.
B.During indexing
C.During the next background scan, even if the purge start watermark is not reached
D.When the purge start watermark is reached
Answer: D

免费下载E22-310题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E22-310题库，其全名为：(DiskXtender for Windows Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E22-310题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E22-310模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E22-310题库PDF下载链接

EMC E22-310学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E22-310考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E22-310学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E22-310考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E22-310是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E22-310考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E22-310考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E22-310试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E22-310考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费e20-012题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-040
Title : EMC (r) Technology Foundations

1. What is a characteristic of a Content Address in Centera?
A.Administrator generated
B.File system based
C.Inherently stable
D.Location-dependent
Answer: C

2. How many bi-directional mirror relationships are allowed per CLARiiON array?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
Answer: C

3. Which Symmetrix implements a unified director feature?
A.DMX1000
B.DMX2000
C.DMX-3
D.Symmetrix 8000
Answer: C

4. In a CLARiiON array, which clone state would prevent a clone from being removed from a clone group?
A.Consistent
B.Fractured
C.Promoted
D.Synchronizing
Answer: D

5. In a CLARiiON array, what is a characteristic of a metaLUN?
A.Can be only expanded one time
B.Can be used with SnapView and MirrorView
C.Cannot be added to a storage group
D.Supported on FC and CX series arrays
Answer: B

6. In a NetWorker environment, which EMC Disk Library feature is used to export virtual tapes to physical tapes, while preventing blind spots?
A.Auto Archive
B.Embedded Storage Node
C.Embedded Media Server
D.Remote Copy
Answer: B

7. After a split operation has occurred, where is the information maintained for changes to the standard volume and BCV?
A.PSM LUN
B.track tables
C.vault
D.VDEV tables
Answer: B

8. Which type of protection is only used for mainframes?
A.RAID 1
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 10
D.Parity RAID
Answer: C

9. In a CLARiiON array, how is I/O handled when a LUN is expanding?
A.Continues to all component LUNs
B.Continues to base LUN only
C.Halted during expansion
D.Halted to the base LUN only
Answer: B

10. How are DMX-2 global cache director boards divided?
A.Boards are divided into four addressable memory chips
B.Boards are divided into four addressable regions comprised of one memory chip
C.Boards consist of four memory chips, each divided into eight regions
D.Boards consist of memory chips and are divided into four addressable regions
Answer: D

11. Which operation must an NFS client perform to access a Celerra advertised connection point?
A.Export
B.Map
C.Mount
D.Share
Answer: C

12. Which SAN topology requires a direct link from any switch to every other switch in the fabric?
A.Compound core-edge
B.Full mesh
C.Partial mesh
D.Simple core-edge
Answer: B

13. PowerPath is connected to Storage Processor A and Storage Processor B. What action does PowerPath take when one path to Storage Processor A fails?
A.Redirects the I/O load across the remaining three paths to the array
B.Redirects the I/O through the two paths to Storage Processor B
C.Trespasses the LUN to Storage Processor B and uses the two paths through this Storage Processor
D.Uses the one remaining path through Storage Processor A
Answer: D

14. What is the cause of the delay in a DMX-3 read miss?
A.Host missed the time to get data
B.Information is missing from the files
C.Information left cache before it was read
D.Information must be read from disk
Answer: D

15. When changes are made to a SnapView source LUN, where is the original data saved?
A.Cache memory
B.Clone Private LUN
C.PSM
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: D

16. Which DMX is optimized for the most efficient power and cooling?
A.DMX-2
B.DMX-3 950
C.DMX3000
D.DMX800
Answer: B

17. After Rainfinity completes a directory or share move, clients can access data through a logical view without having to remap to the new destination. What is the underlying physical location called that maps this logical view?
A.Data Mobility
B.Global Namespace
C.Proxy Service
D.VLAN Change
Answer: B

18. What is a DMX-3 Direct Matrix Interconnect specification?
A.64 2 Gb/s Fibre Channel paths
B.128 direct paths from directors and memory
C.Four or eight processors per director
D.Full component-level redundancy with hot-swappable replacements
Answer: B

19. Which mechanism is used shorten the synchronization process after the link goes down between the primary and secondary mirrors?
A.Fracture log
B.Persistent Storage Manager
C.Primary arrays write cache
D.Reserved LUN pool
Answer: A

20. Which are the characteristics of Symmetrix Enginuity?
A.Comprehensive Symmetrix management and data security
B.Continuous availability, data integrity, built-in security features
C.Enabled consistency and continuous availability
D.Symmetrix-based feature portability and enabled consistency
Answer: B

免费下载e20-012题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的Implemenation认证 e20-012题库，其全名为：(Information Availability Design and Management Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-012题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-012模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的e20-012题库PDF下载链接

EMC e20-012学习指南

Implemenation认证 e20-012考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-012学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-012考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-012是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-012考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-012考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师e20-012试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-012考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费E20-455题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-455
Title : Content Management Web Application Programming Exam

1. You have written a custom authentication scheme and have correctly added the scheme to the system. You discover a problem in the code, which causes the scheme to always return null.
How does the null return value affect authentication in Webtop?
A. Any remaining schemes are skipped, and the login dialog is presented immediately.
B. Any remaining schemes are attempted, where the login dialog is usually the final authentication scheme.
C. The scheme throws a null pointer exception and prevents other schemes from authenticating.
D. The scheme automatically logs the user in as the repository administrator.
Answer: B

2. Given the following code: fragment:
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="delete" notdefined="true" />
</scope>
Which statement is true about the notdefined attribute?
A. The delete component is available for dm_folder types, but not for dm_cabinet types.
B. The delete component is available for dm_folder and dm_cabinet types, but not for dm_document types.
C. The delete component is available for dm_document types, but not for dm_folder or dm_cabinet types.
D. The delete component is available for dm_document, dm_folder and dm_cabinet types.
Answer: C

3. Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer hierarchy.
Answer: A

4. For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

5. Which authentication scheme enables safe automatic login by passing credentials in the URL?
A. Docbase Login Authentication Scheme
B. User Principal Authentication Scheme
C. Uniform Resource Locator Authentication Scheme
D. Ticketed Authentication Scheme
Answer: D

6. The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

7. You have implemented a custom authentication scheme, MyAuthenticationScheme.
To what must you add your scheme to ensure it is active?
A. in a properties file under the custom directory
B. in the app.xml under the custom directory
C. in a properties file under the WEB-INF/classes directory
D. in the web.xml under the WEB-INF directory
Answer: C

8. According to the diagram, which component definition will be used for all instances of the type sop_doc? Assume all four definitions exist in the application.
A. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_sysobject">
<component id="checkin">
…
</component>
</scope>
</config>
B. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="corporate_docs">
<component id="checkin">
…
</component>
</scope>
</config>
C. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="procedure_doc">
<component id="checkin">
…
</component>
</scope>
</config>
D. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="checkin">
…
</component>
</scope>
</config>
Answer: B

9. Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

10. Given the following fragment:
<filter role="contributor, not administrator">
…
</filter>
Which roles will be allowed to use the definition within this filter element?
A. contributors, coordinators, consumers and administrators
B. contributors, coordinators, and consumers, but not administrators
C. contributors, coordinators, but not administrators or consumers
D. contributors, but not administrators, coordinators or consumers
Answer: C

11. Which statement is true about Trusted Authentication Scheme (Principal Support)?
A. It disables authentication through the Content Server.
B. It allows a superuser account to impersonate any given user.
C. The application server user name must not match a repository superuser.
D. A non-superuser account may be used to obtain login tickets.
Answer: B

12. Which order represents the default Preset precedence?
A. location, user, role, object type
B. user, object type, role, location
C. user, role, object type, location
D. location, role, user, object type
Answer: A

13. What makes up a component definition file?
A. pages, parameters, NLS, description
B. pages, behavior, NLS, controls
C. pages, behavior, parameters, events
D. behavior, scope, NLS, actions
Answer: A

14. If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should you extend?
A. customapp.xml
B. webtopapp.xml
C. WEB-INFweb.xml
D. webtopmain_component.xml
Answer: B

15. You do not see the Presets option in Webtop. What could be a possible reason?
A. The Content Server does not have a license for Presets.
B. The BOF registry entry is incorrect in the dfc.properties file.
C. You are not a superuser.
D. You are not a system administrator.
Answer: B

16. Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder’s name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
…
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
…
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
…
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
…
Answer: D

17. Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

18. How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

19. Which is true about Presets?
A. Presets are not used to provide security
B. Presets descend to subfolders
C. Presets applied to a folder do not apply to the files imported into the folder
D. Presets only comprise of a single rule each
Answer: A

20. Which statement is true about action and component XML definitions?
A. Actions and components always require parameters.
B. Actions and components have layouts/presentations.
C. Action and component dispatchers use the same qualifiers.
D. Action and component definitions may contain preconditions.
Answer: C

免费下载E20-455题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-455题库，其全名为：(Content Management Web Application Programming Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-455题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-455模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的E20-455题库PDF下载链接

EMC E20-455学习指南

EMC Certification认证 E20-455考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-455学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-455考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-455是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-455考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-455考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师E20-455试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-455考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费e20-080题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : EMC E20-080
Title : EMC Technology Foundations-NAS

1. What does SSH use?
A. a clear text message transmit
B. a less secure communications connection than Telnet
C. TCP port 22
D. TCP port 23
Answer: C

2. What is a fundamental component of an iSCSI implementation?
A. Connectrix switch
B. Host with Fibre Channel HBAs
C. IP network infrastructure
D. Storage array with Fibre Channel ports
Answer: C

3. When is a write to the CLARiiON considered complete with write cache enabled?
A. After five sequential writes are received by the first SP
B. After the write is cached in the receiving SPs memory
C. After the write is committed to disk
D. After the write is committed to the peer SPs cache memory
Answer: D

4. What does a Domain ID uniquely identify?
A. A fabric in a multi-fabric environment
B. A Fibre Channel node on a name server
C. A storage frame within a fabric
D. A switch within a fabric
Answer: D

5. What is the fundamental purpose of Zoning?
A. To expose array ports and host HBAs to each other
B. To expose LUNs on a storage array to different HBAs
C. To isolate ISL traffic from host-to-storage traffic
D. To isolate switch ports into separate VSANs
Answer: A

6. What is a correct statement when describing NAS clients?
A. Access data irrespective of their physical locality
B. Access data via block level I/O only
C. Always support both NFS and CIFS protocols
D. Use raw data formatted storage volumes
Answer: A

7. Which statement about Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy is correct?
A. Is a CLARiiON only solution
B. Is a Symmetrix only solution
C. Provides a pointer based view of the file system
D. Shares the same volume as the Production File System
Answer: B

8. What business need does NAS address?
A. Application security
B. Firewall configuration
C. Heterogeneous client support
D. Print spooling
Answer: C

9. What do VLANs reduce?
A. The amount of network traffic
B. The number of network segments in the network infrastructure
C. The router traffic overhead in the network infrastructure
D. The security in a network infrastructure
Answer: C

10. Which fabric security feature is governed by the common Fibre Channel standard?
A. LUN Binding
B. Port Binding
C. Port Masking
D. Zoning
Answer: D

11. Which statement about Asynchronous transmissions is correct?
A. A frame clock timing signal is required for correct transmission
B. Multiple characters are transmitted at a time
C. Single characters are transmitted at a time
D. The sender and receiver must negotiate the transmission speed
Answer: C

12. Which CLARiiON GUI based tool is used to present LUNs to hosts?
A. Fabric Manager
B. Navisphere CLI
C. Navisphere Manager
D. Web Tools
Answer: C

13. What does the OSI Data Link layer provide?
A. a reliable message stream to the user interface
B. address and routing for data
C. data encapsulation
D. the media specification
Answer: C

14. What is an operation of the OSI Application layer?
A. Presents data to the user interface
B. Provides a reliable message stream to the user interface
C. Provides a reliable messaging system to the user interface
D. Provides the interface to the user
Answer: D

15. What kind(s) of storage do the Integrated NAS models use?
A. Both CLARiiON and Symmetrix storage
B. CLARiiON storage only
C. CLARiiON, Symmetrix and third-party storage
D. Symmetrix storage only
Answer: B

16. What does NAS provide?
A. a centralized storage solution to distributed clients
B. a distributed storage solution for centralized clients
C. a general purpose appliance for application distribution
D. a general purpose appliance for distributed data management
Answer: A

17. Which statement about NDMP2D backup is correct?
A. Both Metadata and Data passes over the network infrastructure
B. Data passes over the network infrastructure
C. Metadata passes over the network infrastructure
D. No Metadata or Data passes over the network infrastructure
Answer: C

18. How many optical network ports are available on a NS500 DataMover?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. None
Answer: D

19. What is a type of network topology?
A. Bus
B. Core to edge
C. Fabric
D. Link
Answer: A

20. For what is Control Station required?
A. Data Mover failover
B. Data Mover backup
C. Network client connectivity
D. Storage Processor connectivity
Answer: A

免费下载e20-080题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的Technology Foundations认证 e20-080题库，其全名为：(emc technology foundations-nas). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-080题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-080模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的e20-080题库PDF下载链接

EMC e20-080学习指南

Technology Foundations认证 e20-080考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-080学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-080考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-080是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-080考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-080考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师e20-080试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-080考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；