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  • E20-500题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-500考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-500
    问题数量:213 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-07
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam

    免费E20-500题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-500
    Title : EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam

    1. DiskXtender provides multi-target migration capability to provide file retrieval from multiple targets in the event of a failure in the environment. How many targets can be used?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8
    Answer: B

    2. You are proposing a NAS solution for your customer. The final solution includes:
    Celerra NS40 integrated
    Twenty six (26) 146 GB disk drives
    One Celerra Enterprise license
    One Celerra SnapSure license
    Two EMC CAVA licenses
    What hardware is the customer required to provide for the above licensed solution?
    A. A modem for Celerra dial-home
    B. A server for CLARalert email home
    C. An ESRS gateway for secure notifications
    D. Two servers for antivirus scanning
    Answer: D

    3. For reporting purposes, which source provides data for the ETL process to populate the StorageScope repository?
    A. EMC ControlCenter Repository
    B. Host Agents
    C. Master Agents
    D. Store
    Answer: A

    4. A company has an existing DMX-3 2500 in Data Center 1 and a CX3-80 in Data Center 2. Both offices are production sites. There are two dedicated DS3 connections. The company needs to migrate a 300 GB UNIX database from Data Center 2 to Data Center 1. They are not concerned about how much time the replication will take. Which EMC solution should you discuss?
    A. MirrorView/A
    B. RecoverPoint/SE
    C. RepliStor
    D. SAN Copy
    Answer: D

    5. Your customer complains that their backup environment has become unmanageable. Daily backups are not completing within normal backup windows and are running throughout the production day, impacting end-user response times. Recently the tape recovery of a corrupted production database failed resulting in lost data, productivity, and revenue for the company. Which solution will you recommend to the customer?
    A. Backup Advisor
    B. DiskXtender
    C. EMC Disk Library
    D. MediaStor
    Answer: C

    6. A customer implemented BCVs with mirrors for use with the most critical business volumes. The standard volumes were established with the BCVs at the start of the day, but later in the day the customer discovered data corruption. Which action would enable a restore from uncorrupted BCV volumes?
    A. Differential Split
    B. Instant Split
    C. Protected Restore
    D. Reverse Split
    Answer: D

    7. Your customer is experiencing write performance problems on a RAID 5 LUN used for backup-to-disk on its CX3 array. The LUN has been placed on ATA drives. The customer has determined that it would like the LUN on Fibre Channel drives instead. The customer has requested you provide the best option to alleviate this performance problem, keeping downtime to a minimum. What action would you recommend?
    A. Create a new LUN on fibre drives and restore the data from tape to the new LUN.
    B. Implement a newer array and use MirrorView to migrate the data.
    C. Use Dynamic Virtual LUN functionality to move the LUN from ATA to fibre drives.
    D. Use SnapView to make a clone of the LUN on fibre drives and assign the LUN to the appropriate storage group.
    Answer: C

    8. Which license is required if you wish to implement Inter-VSAN Routing (IVR)?
    A. Enterprise License Package
    B. SAN Extension
    C. SANTap
    D. Storage Service Enabler
    Answer: A

    9. You are giving a presentation to a customer about EMC virtualization products. They specifically ask about file storage virtualization. Which EMC product enables file storage virtualization using industry-standard protocols and mechanisms in a heterogeneous environment?
    A. Invista
    B. Rainfinity
    C. RecoverPoint
    D. Vmware
    Answer: B

    10. When data is written to a SnapView source LUN, at what point are the data chunks saved to the Reserved LUN pool?
    A. During synchronization
    B. Every time data is changed on the source
    C. Every time write cache is flushed
    D. When source data is changed for the first time
    Answer: D

    11. Which RAID levels does Avamar support?
    A. RAID 1 and RAID 1/0
    B. RAID 1 and RAID 5
    C. RAID 3 and RAID 5
    D. RAID 1/0 and RAID 5
    Answer: B

    12. After a Data Mover failover, how is the failback operation performed?
    A. Automatically
    B. Data Mover failover is not supported
    C. Manually
    D. Recovery is not needed until another failure occurs
    Answer: C

    13. What does Inter-Switch Link trunking do?
    A. Allows ports on the same blade to be used for ISL
    B. Enables ISL between switches to reach up to 200 km distances
    C. Prohibits a port from becoming an E_Port for fabric security
    D. Aggregates the bandwidth of multiple ISLs
    Answer: D

    14. What is the main benefit of having a security policy?
    A. To align with business priorities and minimize implementation costs
    B. To form the basis of an ongoing Information Lifecycle Management strategy
    C. To initiate legal proceedings against intruders, external or internal
    D. To specify which products and vendors are needed for implementation
    Answer: A

    15. Your customer wishes to deploy SnapView in its existing CX3 environment, and has asked for assistance in designing the environment properly. The customer has the following LUNs to deploy snapshots on:
    LUN 125 100 GB
    LUN 060 25 GB
    LUN 100 10 GB
    LUN 114 82 GB
    LUN 189 34 GB
    According to best practices, what is the minimum size that each LUN in the reserve LUN pool should be?
    A. 5 GB
    B. 10 GB
    C. 25 GB
    D. 50 GB
    Answer: A

    16. A customer has a CX3-80 for Exchange and a critical OLTP database application. Over the last month, during monthly batch processing, users complain of slow response times. Which solution will you recommend to solve this issue?
    A. Access Logix
    B. Performance Manager
    C. Navisphere Quality of Service Manager
    D. StorageScope
    Answer: C

    17. Your customer wishes to deploy a new streaming media application using large multimedia files. These files will be used to provide training to employees. The customer would like to store the media files on its CLARiiON CX3 array.
    The application performance in a proof of concept has not been acceptable, and the customer has narrowed the problem down to a disk. The customer deployed the application and data files on a single RAID 5 4+1 LUN. The application data has various I/O sizes, and the media file I/O size is 1024 Kb.
    The customer is confident the application will perform adequately on the CLARiiON, but is unsure what changes should be made to the configuration. The customer also wants the best balance of performance and cost.
    What would you recommend the customer change in its configuration to achieve the highest performance?
    A. Place the media files and application files on separate RAID 1 groups.
    B. Place the media files on a RAID 3 group and the application files on a RAID 5 group.
    C. Place the media files and application files on separate RAID 5 4+1 groups.
    D. Place the media files on a RAID 5 group and the application files on a RAID 3 group.
    Answer: B

    18. What are the primary goals of an optimization engagement?
    A. Avoid future problems, reduce complexity, enable high availability
    B. Fix existing problems, avoid future problems, reduce costs
    C. Fix existing problems, improve utilization, increase efficiency
    D. Reduce costs, reduce complexity, increase efficiency
    Answer: D

    19. A customer has an ERP system protected by SRDF/A and experienced a loss of link for 6 hours due to a network issue. When the network issue was fixed the links came back up and SRDF was resumed.
    Prior to SRDF/A resuming cycle switching, there was a disaster at the source site, rendering the R1 array unusable. The ERP system was not startable at the DR site and the customer had to restore from tape.
    What would prevent this from happening in the future?
    A. Implement clones on the target side and split them prior to resuming SRDF after a network outage
    B. Implement clones with TimeFinder Consistency Groups on the source side and split them prior to resuming SRDF after a network outage
    C. Implement snaps on the target side and split prior to resuming SRDF after a network outage
    D. Use Consistency Groups and set SRDF QoS to 0
    Answer: A

    20. An EMC ControlCenter customer is a United States Department of Defense contractor. The contractor needs to show that there is controlled user access to devices and to the modification of these devices. This will allow the contractor to provide proof of compliance and accountability. Which security feature of EMC ControlCenter should you discuss with the contractor to satisfy this requirement?
    A. Data collection policy (DCP)
    B. EMC Secure Remote Support (ESRS) Gateway
    C. Role-based access control (RBAC)
    D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
    Answer: C

    免费下载E20-500题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Implemenation认证 E20-500题库，其全名为：(EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-500题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-500模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的E20-500题库PDF下载链接

    EMC E20-500学习指南

    Implemenation认证 E20-500考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-500学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-500考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-500是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-500考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-500考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师E20-500试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-500考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

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  • e20-050题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-050考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-050
    问题数量:272 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-10-02
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:emc technology foundations -clariion

    免费e20-050题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-050
    Title : EMC Technology Foundations – Clariion

    1. Which EMC software decreases the complexities associated with a command line interface?
    A. Host Component
    B. Storage Scope
    C. Symmetrix Management Console
    D. Symmetrix Performance Manager
    Answer: C

    2. During synchronization, how does a clone handle incoming host I/O?
    A. Accepts all I/Os
    B. Accepts reads only
    C. Accepts write only
    D. Rejects all incoming I/Os
    Answer: D

    3. In a CLARiiON array, what allows the production host access to a snapshot?
    A. Must start the snapshot with admsnap start
    B. The production host cannot access a snapshot
    C. The snapshot must be in the same storage group as the source
    D. The snapshot must be mounted on the production host
    Answer: B

    4. In a CLARiiON array, at which point does a SnapView snapshot appear on-line to the secondary host?
    A. once the LUN is fractured
    B. once the session is activated
    C. once the source LUN is chosen
    D. when the session gets created
    Answer: B

    5. Which of these DMX arrays is optimized for the most efficient power and cooling?
    A. DMX-2
    B. DMX-3 950
    C. DMX3000
    D. DMX800
    Answer: B

    6. When changes are made to a SnapView source LUN, where is the original data saved?
    A. Cache memory
    B. Clone Private LUN
    C. PSM
    D. Reserved LUN pool
    Answer: D

    7. What are the characteristics of Symmetrix Enginuity?
    A. Comprehensive Symmetrix management and data security
    B. Continuous availability, data integrity, built-in security features
    C. Enabled consistency and continuous availability
    D. Symmetrix-based feature portability and enabled consistency
    Answer: B

    8. When are data chunks saved to the Reserved LUN pool when writing data to a SnapView source LUN?
    A. During synchronization
    B. Every time data is changed on the source
    C. Every time write cache is flushed
    D. When source data is changed for the first time
    Answer: D

    9. What is an Information Availability business benefit of Symmetrix?
    A. Ensures consistent recovery across interrelated applications and databases
    B. Prevents unauthorized user and equipment management actions
    C. Provides a fully fault monitoring hardware design
    D. Reduces the effect of costs and power consumption to the business
    Answer: A

    10. What is a DMX-3 Direct Matrix Interconnect specification?
    A. 64 2Gb/s Fibre Channel paths
    B. 128 direct paths from directors and memory
    C. Four or eight processors per director
    D. Full component-level redundancy with hot-swappable replacements
    Answer: B

    11. Which process makes a snapshot inaccessible to the backup host?
    A. Activation
    B. De-activation
    C. Fracturing
    D. Synchronizing
    Answer: B

    12. Which CLARiiON feature provides a full point-in-time copy of a production LUN?
    A. Clone
    B. MetaLUN
    C. reserved LUN pool
    D. Snapshot
    Answer: A

    13. Which Symmetrix implements a unified director feature?
    A. DMX1000
    B. DMX2000
    C. DMX-3
    D. Symmetrix 8000
    Answer: C

    14. What would be the cause of the delay in a DMX-3 read miss?
    A. Host missed the time to get data
    B. Information is missing from the files
    C. Information left cache before it was read
    D. Information must be read from disk
    Answer: D

    15. Which of these business benefit uses Symmetrix Service Credential?
    A. Advanced recovery and failover
    B. Database safekeeping
    C. Recovery-point objectives
    D. Symmetrix security
    Answer: D

    16. How many SnapView sessions are allowed per source LUN?
    A. 4
    B. 6
    C. 8
    D. 10
    Answer: C

    17. Which CLARiiON LUN is used by a snapshot to create a point-in-time copy?
    A. Backup
    B. Primary
    C. Secondary
    D. Source
    Answer: D

    18. In a CLARiiON array, which state must the SnapView snapshot device be in for secondary host access?
    A. activated
    B. fractured
    C. split
    D. synchronized
    Answer: A

    19. In what way are DMX-2 global cache director boards divided?
    A. Boards are divided into four addressable memory chips
    B. Boards are divided into four addressable regions comprised of one memory chip
    C. Boards consist of four memory chips, each divided into eight regions
    D. Boards consist of memory chips and are divided into four addressable regions
    Answer: D

    20. Which CLARiiON device requires only a fraction of the source disk space?
    A. Clones
    B. metaLUNs
    C. SAN Copy
    D. Snapshots
    Answer: D

    免费下载e20-050题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Technology Foundations认证 e20-050题库，其全名为：(emc technology foundations -clariion). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-050题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-050模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-050题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-050学习指南

    Technology Foundations认证 e20-050考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-050学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-050考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-050是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-050考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-050考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-050试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-050考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e22-128题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e22-128考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e22-128
    问题数量:149 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-08-31
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:emc legato cert networker 7 x administrator

    免费e22-128题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E22-128
    Title : EMC Legato Cert Networker 7 x Administrator

    1. Which utility generates reports about the contents of a Client File Index (CFI)?
    A. nsrck
    B. mminfo
    C. nsrrpt
    D. nsrinfo
    Answer: D

    2. What is the purpose of the NetWorker Staging resource?
    A. configures the disk space used on the NetWorker Server for adv_file type devices
    B. repacks tape volumes containing deleted or expired save sets as well as demultiplexes the remaining save sets
    C. maintains free space on file/adv_file type devices by automatically moving save sets when parameters are met
    D. configures NetWorker HSM functionality to allow clients to transparently archive and stage data based on access time
    Answer: C

    3. A jukebox has three drives. There is one appendable clone volume available. An automatic backup with cloning has just completed and the cloning operation is also complete. You are asked to clone a save set from the completed backup. You mount the clone volume and the original volume, then start the clone operation. The clone stops and asks for one writable clone volume. What is wrong?
    A. The clone volume is full.
    B. The save set spans volumes.
    C. The clone volume has an earlier instance of the save set.
    D. The source volume has an earlier instance of the save set.
    Answer: C

    4. The retention policy for a large NetWorker client is increased from six months to one year. Backups are written to tape nightly and all tapes (except for cloned tapes) must remain in the tape library at all times. The number of files on this client that are backed up each night remains unchanged. What are three possible impacts of this change? (Choose three.)
    A. Additional tape media is needed.
    B. Another NetWorker server is needed.
    C. The media database increases in size.
    D. The capacity of the tape library is exceeded.
    E. The Client File Index (CFI) increases in size.
    Answer: ACD

    5. An unwanted tape pool cannot be deleted until the tapes in that pool are all _____.
    A. write-protected
    B. marked as recyclable
    C. removed from the tape library
    D. removed from the media database
    Answer: D

    6. Which two interfaces can be used to set up a NetWorker client? (Choose two.)
    A. nwadmin
    B. nsradmin
    C. nwbackup
    D. nsrwatch
    Answer: AB

    7. Which NetWorker database tracks information for each file in a save set?
    A. media database
    B. Client File Index (CFI)
    C. savegroup completion report
    D. the /nsr/index/* files on the NetWorker client that created the save set
    Answer: B

    8. Which three attributes can you extract using mminfo? (Choose three.)
    A. save time
    B. record number
    C. volume identifier
    D. volume subscript
    E. contents of the Client File Index (CFI)
    Answer: ABC

    9. A company has a failed group backup and the system administrator wants to run the probe to see which filesystem on the client is backed up. Which command probes the clients?
    A. savegrp -s oboe -S Default
    B. savegrp -s oboe -p Default
    C. savegrp -s oboe -w Default
    D. savegrp -s oboe -v test Default
    Answer: B

    10. A save set with SSID 12858282828 is about to end its retention period. Which command marks this save set as retained and browsable until January 12, 2010?
    A. nsrim -S 12858282828 -e 1/12/2010 -w 1/12/2010
    B. nsrmm -S 12858282828 -e 1/12/2004 -w 1/12/2010
    C. nsrmm -S 12858282828 -e 1/12/2010 -w 1/12/2010
    D. nsrjb -S 12858282828 -e 1/12/2010 -w 1/12/2010
    Answer: C

    11. Which attribute determines the maximum number of save sets allowed to back up simultaneously in a data zone?
    A. target sessions
    B. max parallelism
    C. client parallelism
    D. server parallelism
    Answer: D

    12. Which command do you use to recover a Client File Index (CFI)?
    A. mmrecov
    B. nsrck -L7
    C. scanner -m
    D. nsrinfo -N
    Answer: B

    13. After marking files with nwrecover or winworkr, you click on Required Volumes to see which volumes are required. Which statement is true for the Required Volumes?
    A. NetWorker prepares the files list from the media database.
    B. NetWorker prepares the volumes list from the media database.
    C. NetWorker prepares the files list from the Client File Index (CFI).
    D. NetWorker prepares the volumes list from the Client File Index (CFI).
    Answer: B

    14. Which command-line utility displays a list of tapes in a tape library that is connected to the same server on which the command is invoked?
    A. nsrjb -l
    B. nsrjb -C
    C. nsrim -j
    D. nsrmm -C
    Answer: B

    15. What is the primary purpose of the group resource?
    A. defines the schedule for a group of clients
    B. defines the start time for a group of clients
    C. defines the save sets for a group of clients
    D. defines the backup level for a group of clients
    Answer: B

    16. Client flute is backed up to a file type device connected to the storage node orange. What happens when the file type device runs out of space during the backup?
    A. The backup fails, is restarted, and uses the next available device.
    B. The volume is marked full and the save set spans another volume.
    C. The backup is suspended and waits for the administrator to clear space.
    D. The backup is suspended, expired save sets are deleted, and the backup continues if enough space is cleared.
    Answer: B

    17. Which statement about a single physical host is correct?
    A. It can only have one client resource configured.
    B. It can have more than one client resource configured.
    C. It can have more than one client resource configured, each with a unique name.
    D. It can have more than one client resource configured, and a client connection license must exist for each client resource.
    Answer: B

    18. What is the Backup Command attribute in the client configuration for a scheduled backup of a Microsoft SQL database?
    A. sqlsave
    B. sqluasm
    C. nsrsqlsv
    D. save -n sql
    Answer: C

    19. What is a proper method of determining the tape drive order before configuring a tape library?
    A. use the autodetect option of jbconfig
    B. put a tape in one drive and use mt to check status of that drive
    C. use psstat to get the order of drives and correlate it with inquire output
    D. use /usr/ccs/bin/what on the logical drive and correlate it with inquire output
    Answer: B

    20. Which two items does the inquire command display? (Choose two.)
    A. speed of tape devices, if installed
    B. SCSI address of connected devices
    C. media capacity of connected tape drives
    D. device file information of tape devices, if installed
    Answer: BD

    免费下载e22-128题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Legato Cert认证 e22-128题库，其全名为：(emc legato cert networker 7 x administrator). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e22-128题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e22-128模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e22-128题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e22-128学习指南

    Legato Cert认证 e22-128考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e22-128学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e22-128考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e22-128是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e22-128考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e22-128考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e22-128试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e22-128考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e20-597题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-597考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-597
    问题数量:260 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-22
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators

    免费e20-597题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-597
    Title : Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage
    　　　　　　　　　Administrators Certification

    1. A telco company needs to retain log files for 1 year for legal compliance. RTO for files backed up within the last week is in minutes.
    Which backup solution should be recommended?
    A. Advanced file type device
    B. EMC Centera
    C. NDMP device
    D. Tape library
    Answer: A

    2. Which NetWorker edition is needed to configure a data zone with a NetWorker server with 16 LTO2 devices and 10 storage nodes with 32 devices each?
    A. Business
    B. Network
    C. Power
    D. Workgroup
    Answer: C

    3. A customer decides to implement a two-tier backup solution, with disk as tier one and tape as tier two. A retention period needs to be defined for tier one, which would determine when the data will be moved to tier two.
    What determines this retention period?
    A. Backup window
    B. Data type in the environment
    C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
    D. Recovery time objective (RTO)
    Answer: D

    4. For which type of NetWorker backup is the client file index backed up?
    A. Client-initiated and server-initiated
    B. Client-initiated only
    C. Raw backups
    D. Server-initiated only
    Answer: D

    5. Why are split-mirror snapshots preferred for disaster recovery?
    A. Always consistent
    B. Faster recovery compared to copy on write snapshots
    C. Provides a complete copy of production data
    D. Requires less storage space compared to copy on write snapshots
    Answer: C

    6. In NetWorker 7.4, what could be done to add a client to a group?
    A. Drag the client onto the group resource
    B. Drag the client onto the pool resource
    C. Select the client in the group resource
    D. Select the client in the pool resource
    Answer: A

    7. Your customer is planning a NetWorker backup environment. They will have one NetWorker server and two storage nodes, all sharing the four tape drives in one autochanger.
    How many dynamic drive sharing licenses are needed?
    A. 1
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 12
    Answer: C

    8. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and PowerSnap, to create and back up copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host. The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%.
    What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed?
    A. 30 GB
    B. 270 GB
    C. 300 GB
    D. 330 GB
    Answer: C

    9. A customer has two tape drives configured to a NetWorker storage node that is currently backing up four clients. How many nsrmmdbd processes are running on the storage node?
    A. 0
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 4
    Answer: A

    10. What is a characteristic of an advanced file type device in NetWorker?
    A. Can only clone to another advanced file type device
    B. Duplicate media database records
    C. Requires a separate pool
    D. Save sets are stored in separate files in a flat directory format
    Answer: B

    11. A company wants to move to a backup-to-disk solution, and is considering Celerra. What is an advantage of this solution?
    A. Built-in tape acceleration algorithm
    B. Extra hardware not required on the storage node
    C. File system shares dedicated to individual storage nodes
    D. Fragments file system to improve writes
    Answer: B

    12. Your customer is using an advanced file type device and would like to perform save set cloning after backup. Which option is available for this configuration?
    A. Automatic and manual cloning of a save set, but cloning can begin only after all the save sets in the savegroup have been backed up
    B. Automatic cloning after all the save sets in the savegroup have been backed up and manual cloning of a save set as soon as it has finished its backup
    C. Manual cloning of a save set, but cloning can begin only after all the save sets in the savegroup have been backed up
    D. Save set cloning is not supported for advanced file type devices
    Answer: B

    13. Click the Exhibit button.
    You are backing up your data every day at midnight as shown in the exhibit. You have a failure on day 5 at 11 A.M.
    How many backups must be recovered?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: A

    14. Your customer is planning a NetWorker backup environment. They have one NetWorker server and two storage nodes, all using the same autochanger for backups. The autochanger has two tape drives.
    What is the MINIMUM number of dynamic drive sharing licenses needed?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: A

    15. A customer buys an NS80 with two trays of 500 GB ATA disks to be used as the primary backup destination device. According to best practices, how is the second tray configured?
    A. One 8+1 RAID 3 group, one 4+1 RAID 3 group, and one hot spare
    B. Three 4+1 RAID 3 groups
    C. Three 4+1 RAID 5 groups
    D. Two 6+1 RAID 5 groups and one hot spare
    Answer: D

    16. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed up?
    A. mminfo
    B. mmls
    C. nsrinfo
    D. nsrls
    Answer: A

    17. A defined backup policy takes full backups every Monday and incremental backups on the remaining weekdays. In the worst case how many restores would you have to perform to recover a file that was removed by mistake on Friday morning?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: D

    18. You want to deploy a NetWorker backup solution in an environment consisting of five Linux servers, two HP-UX, four Solaris, four Windows 2000 and three Windows 2003.
    One of the Solaris servers is currently idle so you decide to use it as the NetWorker server. The customer purchased a NetWorker Power Edition for UNIX.
    How many additional licenses are needed?
    A. Seven client connections and three ClientPaks
    B. Seven client connections and five ClientPaks
    C. Eight client connections and two ClientPaks
    D. Eight client connections and three ClientPaks
    Answer: D

    19. A CLARiiON CX3-20 with 4 GB of system cache has been configured as a backup-to-disk device.
    What is the minimum recommended read cache size?
    A. 1 GB
    B. 2 GB
    C. 200 MB
    D. 500 MB
    Answer: C

    20. What is an advantage of using EMC OnCourse?
    A. Automated file transfers across Celerra systems
    B. Creates local, point-in-time logical disk copies
    C. Provides a "near instant" snapshot of a filesystem on the same or different Celerras
    D. Automated file transfers across existing servers
    Answer: C

    免费下载e20-597题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Technology Foundations认证 e20-597题库，其全名为：(Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-597题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-597模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-597题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-597学习指南

    Technology Foundations认证 e20-597考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-597学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-597考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-597是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-597考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-597考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-597试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-597考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e20-070题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-070考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-070
    问题数量:144 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-08-31
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:emc technology foundations-san

    免费e20-070题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-070
    Title : EMC Technology Foundations-SAN

    1. When is a write to the CLARiiON considered complete with write cache enabled?
    A. After five sequential writes are received by the first SP
    B. After the write is cached in the receiving SPs memory
    C. After the write is committed to disk
    D. After the write is committed to the peer SPs cache memory
    Answer: D

    2. How is cache memory allocated in a CLARiiON CX series array?
    A. Pages
    B. Partition
    C. Segments
    D. Tracks
    Answer: A

    3. Which additional information is provided by the VisualSAN SNIA Agent which is not provided by the Navisphere Agent?
    A. Automatic Host and HBA association
    B. Detailed HBA property information
    C. Path visualization from Host to Storage Unit
    D. Storage provisioning (host to array)
    Answer: B

    4. What components are used to daisy chain DMX-3 storage bays?
    A. Disk directors
    B. Disk adapters
    C. Link Control Cards
    D. Midplane
    Answer: C

    5. Which GUI interface is used to build Symmetrix configurations or BIN files?
    A. Fabric manager
    B. Navisphere
    C. SymmSeek
    D. SymmWin
    Answer: D

    6. What software options exist for managing a M-Series fabric?
    A. Connectrix Manager and ControlCenter
    B. Connectrix Manager and WebTools
    C. Device Manager and ControlCenter
    D. EWS and WebTools
    Answer: A

    7. What is a PowerPath storage class?
    A. A grouping of applications using the same channels
    B. A license that is required to manage a storage array
    C. A storage array that PowerPath supports
    D. A tiered license for the host class that PowerPath supports
    Answer: C

    8. Which IT issue does VisualSRM help resolve?
    A. Manual and error-prone storage provisioning adds complexity
    B. Multiple products required to coordinate backup tasks on many hosts adds complexity
    C. Need to identify dormant files that are no longer accessed for better storage utilization
    D. Visualization of entire storage path from filesystem to array drive is required
    Answer: C

    9. When can PowerPath configuration, management and tuning be performed?
    A. During maintenance windows
    B. Offline
    C. Online
    D. When the system is not used for production
    Answer: C

    10. What is the default element size for a five disk RAID 5 group?
    A. 64 bytes
    B. 4KB
    C. 64KB
    D. 128KB
    Answer: C

    11. Which information does VisualSRM collect about hosts?
    A. CPU and memory utilization
    B. Filesystem names and utilization
    C. Switch and array port to filesystem mapping
    D. Volume group names and utilization
    Answer: B

    12. What is a functionality of the PowerPath filter driver?
    A. Notifies the application after each I/O is delivered
    B. Redirects I/O to the next available path based on the load balancing policy
    C. Redirects I/O to the shortest path to the logical volume
    D. Uses a random path in the volume path set to service the I/O request
    Answer: B

    13. Which CLARiiON component is used for staging and prefetching data?
    A. nv ram
    B. PSM
    C. Read cache
    D. Write cache
    Answer: C

    14. Which fabric security feature is governed by the common Fibre Channel standard?
    A. LUN Binding
    B. Port Binding
    C. Port Masking
    D. Zoning
    Answer: D

    15. What is a feature of PowerPath?
    A. Automated path failover with no path recovery
    B. Manual path failover
    C. Proactive path testing
    D. Static load balancing
    Answer: C

    16. A fabric contains a single host HBA requiring connectivity to storage ports on several storage arrays. Which parameter can impose a limit on this design?
    A. Fan-in ratio for each storage array port
    B. Fan-in ratio for the HBA
    C. Fan-out ratio for each storage array port
    D. Fan-out ratio for the HBA
    Answer: B

    17. What are two valid types of zoning in a SAN?
    A. Flexible Zoning and Invariant Zoning
    B. Hard Zoning and Soft Zoning
    C. SNIA Zoning and Vendor-Unique Zoning
    D. Serial and Parallel zoning
    Answer: B

    18. Which RAID type uses a single drive to maintain parity?
    A. RAID 1
    B. RAID 1/0
    C. RAID 3
    D. RAID 5
    Answer: C

    19. From PowerPath’s point of view, what array type is an INVISTA instance?
    A. Active-active
    B. Active-passive
    C. Passive-active
    D. Passive-passive
    Answer: A

    20. What is PowerPath?
    A. Array based software that intelligently manages I/O to the array
    B. Array based software that supports active-active and active-passive arrays
    C. Host based software that notifies the application when a path failure occurs
    D. Host based software that provides path failover and load balancing.
    Answer: D

    免费下载e20-070题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Technology Foundations认证 e20-070题库，其全名为：(emc technology foundations-san). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-070题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-070模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-070题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-070学习指南

    Technology Foundations认证 e20-070考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-070学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-070考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-070是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-070考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-070考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-070试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-070考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e22-106题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e22-106考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e22-106
    问题数量:116 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-03
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:emc legato cert.aam 5 x administrator

    免费e22-106题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E22-106
    Title : Emc Legato Cert AAM 5 x Administrator

    1. What does the mirroring for Windows 2000 Data Source require?
    A.a dynamic disk
    B.a private network
    C.a shared disk array
    D.a hardware RAID controller
    Answer: B

    2. Which two are clustering topologies? (Choose two.)
    A.ring
    B.star
    C.one to one
    D.one to none
    E.many to one
    Answer: CE

    3. Which statement is true about AAM secondary nodes?
    A.Secondary nodes provide backbone fault tolerance.
    B.Secondary nodes can be the last running node in an AAM domain.
    C.Secondary nodes can be the preferred node to run a Resource Group.
    D.Secondary Rule Interpreters can run rules for any node on the domain.
    Answer: C

    4. A three-node domain is configured with each of the nodes connected to two networks. A network cable attached to node A’s Network Interface Card (NIC) is accidentally detached. Later that evening, the maintenance crew unplugs power to the hub on node A’s remaining working network.
    Which statement is true?
    A.The node is considered isolated.
    B.Nodes B and C will report node A as shut down.
    C.The resources running on node A are taken offline.
    D.When the network connection is re-established, node A will determine that its Resource Group objects have changed to a failed state.
    Answer: A

    5. Which two statements are true about the AAM isolation detection feature? (Choose two.)
    A.All agents are responsible for isolation detection.
    B.Only primary agents are responsible for isolation detection.
    C.If, within half of the minimum detection time, no heartbeats are received, a ping is sent to each isolation address.
    D.If, within half of the minimum detection time, no heartbeats are received, a ping is sent across the verification line.
    Answer: AC

    6. An administrator creates five Resource Groups in AAM. What is the number of ftPerl processes running by default?
    A.1
    B.2
    C.3
    D.5
    Answer: C

    7. Which statement is true when creating a new service resource?
    A.The default response test is used to query the service status.
    B.AAM discovers all services on all nodes when selecting the service to run.
    C.AAM prevents the target node list from containing nodes on which the service is not installed.
    D.The account information set must match the account for the service configuration in the service Control Manager applet.
    Answer: B

    8. Which is a valid IP address for private non-routed network use?
    A.37.16.256.4
    B.117.24.103.40
    C.127.0.0.1
    D.192.168.7.69
    Answer: D

    9. What are three elements of a Resource Group? (Choose three.)
    A.rules
    B.delays
    C.sensors
    D.node proxies
    E.Utility Processes
    F.event messages
    Answer: BEF

    10. Which statement describes an AAM Utility Process?
    A.A Utility Process runs using the account of the user that started it.
    B.A Utility Process can transition to the failed state if its existence monitor is incorrectly written.
    C.A Utility Process is an unmanaged process that can be started from the Management Console, from a Resource Group, or from a rule.
    D.When contained within a Resource Group, a Utility Process will typically run while the group is brought online, and be stopped when the resource group is taken offline.
    Answer: C

    11. Which statement describes the functionality of an AAM Sensor?
    A.A Sensor returns the value of the data point to a trigger.
    B.A Sensor fires an associated rule when the value of the data point changes.
    C.A Sensor fires an associated trigger when the value of the data point changes.
    D.A Sensor senses changes in the value of a data point and submits those changes to its associated rule.
    Answer: A

    12. Node alias names must _____. (Choose two.)
    A.be unique
    B.be listed in DNS
    C.be fewer than 16 characters
    D.disable NetBIOS over TCP/IP
    E.be assigned to a Resource Group
    Answer: AC

    13. Which three options should you consider when performing a failover in a WAN environment? (Choose three.)
    A.isolation detection
    B.transfer of host name
    C.location of DNS servers
    D.transfer of IP addresses
    E.secondary agents on both sides of the network
    Answer: ACD

    14. When is it appropriate to configure node-specific isolation detection IP addresses instead of domain-specific isolation detection IP addresses?
    A.when isolation detection IP addresses are common to all nodes
    B.when a configuration has only one isolation detection IP address
    C.when isolation detection IP addresses are not common to all nodes
    D.when a configuration has five or more isolation detection IP addresses
    Answer: C

    15. When considering the use of a dedicated Mirroring Network, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
    A.You must set the duplex mode for the adapter to AutoSelect.
    B.The NetBEUI protocol must be enabled for the mirroring network.
    C.You must ensure that TCP/IP is the only network protocol on that link and all other protocols are disabled.
    D.The Network Interface Card (NIC) used for mirroring must appear before the NICs used for the public network.
    E.You must assign a static IP address for the dedicated link that is on a separate subnet from any domain network or public network.
    Answer: CE

    16. Which two tasks can occur on a secondary agent? (Choose two.)
    A.execute rules
    B.restart the backbone
    C.host a Resource Group
    D.monitor the AAM domain
    E.maintain a copy of the database
    Answer: CD

    17. Which three resource objects can be contained within a Resource Group? (Choose three.)
    A.rule
    B.process
    C.IP address
    D.Utility process
    E.Network Interface Card (NIC)
    Answer: BCD

    18. Which two networking statements are correct? (Choose two.)
    A.Routing is the same on all operating systems.
    B.Routing is the same on UNIX operating systems.
    C.Not all switches will route multicast traffic by default.
    D.To observe the routing table on a UNIX or Windows server, you should use the netstat -nr command.
    Answer: CD

    19. Which three options can only be defined in a Resource Group? (Choose three.)
    A.delays
    B.scripts
    C.event messages
    D.environment variables
    E.Network Interface Cards (NICs)
    Answer: ABC

    20. Which statement about AAM’s Network Interface Card (NIC)-to-NIC feature is true?
    A.If one NIC fails, another will be configured to take its place.
    B.Communications can be routed from one NIC to another NIC.
    C.If one NIC is overloaded, another NIC will be configured to assist with traffic.
    D.Two NICs are paired together as a single logical NIC with twice the capacity and function.
    Answer: A

    免费下载e22-106题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Legato Cert认证 e22-106题库，其全名为：(emc legato cert.aam 5 x administrator). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e22-106题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e22-106模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e22-106题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e22-106学习指南

    Legato Cert认证 e22-106考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e22-106学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e22-106考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e22-106是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e22-106考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e22-106考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e22-106试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e22-106考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

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  • e22-183题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e22-183考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e22-183
    问题数量:142 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-08-31
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:emc legato cert emailxtender and emailxaminer daministrator

    免费e22-183题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E22-183
    Title : EMC EmailXtender and EmailXaminer Administrator Exam

    1. What does a "Sample Now" operation provide?
    A. a listing of messages available for sampling
    B. an analysis of the current system configuration
    C. a sampled set of historic messages based on the current sampling settings
    D. a sampled set of messages representing the current sampling settings and the current messages available for sampling
    E. a non-reviewable sampled set of messages representing the current sampling settings and the current messages available for sampling
    Answer: D

    2. What information do you need to install EmailXaminer server? (Choose two.)
    A. SQL server name
    B. EmailXtender server name
    C. EmailXaminer server name
    D. EmailXtender installation path
    Answer: AB

    3. A company is using Exchange2000. The connector mailbox is properly defined through the EmailXtender administrator. However, mail is not collecting in the connector mailbox. Why isn’t the mail being archived into the connector mailbox?
    A. Administrator is not logged in to the domain.
    B. Outlook is currently not the default mail client.
    C. Archiving is not enabled on the Exchange server.
    D. Outlook is not installed on the EmailXtender server.
    Answer: C

    4. Which three sampling methods are currently available within EmailXaminer version 2.1? (Choose three.)
    A. lexicon sampling
    B. random sampling
    C. directed sampling
    D. lexicon-weighted sampling
    E. random weighted sampling
    Answer: ABD

    5. A change is made and saved to the sampling settings of a message review group. When do these changes actually take effect?
    A. after activating changes
    B. beginning with the next review period
    C. beginning with the next sample period
    D. beginning with the next retention period
    E. Changes to sampling settings are not allowed.
    Answer: C

    6. Which two types of EmailXaminer installations are available? (Choose two.)
    A. Base
    B. Client
    C. Server
    D. Manager
    E. Administrator
    Answer: BC

    7. Which group membership does the EmailXtender service account require?
    A. Domain Examiner group
    B. Local Administrator group
    C. Exchange Administrators group
    D. Enterprise Administrators group
    Answer: B

    8. Which three types of journaling can be enabled in an Exchange 5.5 environment? (Choose three.)
    A. Site Level Journaling
    B. Server Level Journaling
    C. Message Level Journaling
    D. Organizational Level Journaling
    E. Message Store Level Journaling
    Answer: ABD

    9. What is the result of executing chkidx -u
    A. re-indexes every index
    B. repairs the indexes for the entire month
    C. repairs only bad indexes within any given month
    D. removes the monthly index for a particular month
    Answer: C

    10. Where can you configure additional mailbox connectors?
    A. Cabinet object
    B. Email Vault object
    C. Exchange Mail Stores
    D. EmailXtender server object
    E. EmailXtender Account Information dialog box
    Answer: B

    11. Which product feature can be leveraged to perform archival of historic email messages from restored back-up tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
    A. EmailXtract’s archive task
    B. EmailXtract’s analysis task
    C. EmailXtender’s search client
    D. EmailXaminer’s message review function
    Answer: A

    12. What must be done before installing the EmailXtender Domino listener on a Windows 2000 Advanced Server machine?
    A. The notes.ini file must be moved to the root of C:.
    B. The client.cfg file should be added to the path in the environment variables on the Domino server.
    C. The LotusDomino program directory should be added to the path in the environment variables.
    D. The ADS permissions on the Domino program directory should be set to "Change" so that the EXadmin service account can access it.
    Answer: C

    13. Which two statements about journal mailboxes are true? (Choose two.)
    A. Journal mailboxes store messages temporarily.
    B. Journal mailboxes store messages for transfer to EmailXaminer.
    C. Journal mailboxes can be set up for use across multiple Exchange servers.
    D. Journal mailboxes managed by the EX server can be viewed at the Folder hierarchical level.
    Answer: AC

    14. With an encrypted email, what is indexed by EmailXtender?
    A. nothing is indexed
    B. message header only
    C. message header and body, not the attachments
    D. message header, message body, and attachments
    E. message header and attachments, not the encrypted message body
    Answer: B

    15. A company had a power outage over the weekend. EmailXtender is no longer archiving mail from the Journaling mailbox. The services are all started and the Journaling mailbox is properly defined. There are also no suspect errors in the event log. Which component should be checked for proper connectivity?
    A. SQL
    B. DNS
    C. LDAP
    D. MSMQ
    Answer: A

    16. Which two services should be checked if EmailXaminer is no longer sampling messages? (Choose two.)
    A. ExEmail
    B. ExQuery
    C. ExAdmin
    D. ExArchive
    E. ExXaminer
    Answer: AE

    17. How do you display supported, indexed attachment types from within the ExAdmin?
    A. right-click on the Vault, choose properties, and select the Attachments tab
    B. right-click on the Folder, choose properties, and select the Attachments tab
    C. right-click on the Cabinet, choose properties, and select the Attachments tab
    D. right-click on the Computer, choose properties, and select the Attachments tab
    Answer: C

    18. Which resource needs to be protected to recover the EmailXtender configuration?
    A. SQL database
    B. EmailXtender.ini file
    C. XML configuration files
    D. Windows system registry
    Answer: D

    19. If you want to send all mail from all the Exchange 5.5 sites to a single EmailXtender server, which type of journaling should you implement?
    A. site
    B. global
    C. server
    D. organizational
    Answer: D

    20. A bank has requested a sizing estimate for their email archive.
    The bank has provided the following details:
    Total number of users =11000
    Average message size =100 KB
    Average number of messages per day =35
    Number of days per work week =5
    Number of weeks per year =51
    Constants:
    EmailXtender compression ratio =50%
    EmailXtender index ratio =10%
    Hourly throughput of EmailXtender Server =1 GB/Hour
    1 TB =1024 GB
    1 GB =1024 MB
    1 MB =1024 KB
    How much email (GB) does the bank transmit in a given year?
    A. 9363 GB
    B. 9818 GB
    C. 13401 GB
    D. 14053 GB
    Answer: A

    免费下载e22-183题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Legato Cert认证 e22-183题库，其全名为：(emc legato cert emailxtender and emailxaminer daministrator). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e22-183题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e22-183模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e22-183题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e22-183学习指南

    Legato Cert认证 e22-183考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e22-183学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e22-183考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e22-183是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e22-183考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e22-183考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e22-183试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e22-183考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • E20-590题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-590考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-590
    问题数量:123 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-18
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam

    免费E20-590题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-590
    Title : Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam

    1. You are designing a backup solution for an EMC NetWorker customer who wants to backup while restoring from the same device. Which option should be used?
    A.Advanced file type device
    B.File type device
    C.Save set cloning
    D.Save set staging
    Answer: A

    2. What is the advantage of using N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)?
    A.Allows DL4000 with Active Engine Failover to be connected to FC-AL environments
    B.Allows DL4000 with Active Engine Failover to be connected to FC-SW environments
    C.Provides link aggregation capability in DL3D 1500 systems
    D.Provides multi-port replication capability in DL3D 1500 systems
    Answer: B

    3. A customer needs to configure backup for a large database (~ 1 TB) with EMC NetWorker Module for Oracle. Which solution will minimize performance degradation on the database server?
    A.Backup-to-tape
    B.Backup-to-disk
    C.Backup-to-virtual tape library
    D.Backup with split-mirror function
    Answer: D

    4. Why are split-mirror snapshots preferred for recovery from LUN failure?
    A.Always synchronized
    B.Faster recovery compared to Copy on Write snapshots
    C.Provides a complete copy of production data
    D.Requires less storage space compared to Copy on Write snapshots
    Answer: C

    5. You designed a customer solution using a disk device for backups. The available disk space is limited. You determined that it is necessary to move data from disk to tape after a specified time.
    What should you use?
    A.Advanced file type device with cloning
    B.Advanced file type device with staging
    C.File type device and nsrcompress
    D.File type device with archiving
    Answer: B

    6. A customer has a DMX-3 system with available low cost Fiber Channel storage and wants to use it as a backup-to-disk destination storage device. Some of the storage nodes in the network are not connected to the SAN.
    Which solution can be used so that all storage nodes in the environment use the DMX-3 as the backup-to-disk destination device while leveraging their current investment?
    A.CX80G
    B.DL210
    C.NS80
    D.NS80G
    Answer: D

    7. A customer has a DL4100. What is required to activate the embedded storage node?
    A.Add the embedded storage node license through the EMC Disk Library GUI
    B.Log in to the disk library and install the EMC NetWorker storage node
    C.Log in to the disk library and run the enable_esn.sh script
    D.Use the command line interface to enable the embedded storage node option
    Answer: A

    8. You designed a customer solution using a disk device for backups. The available disk space is limited. You determined that it is necessary to move data from disk to tape after a specified time.
    What should you use?
    A.Advanced file type device with cloning
    B.Advanced file type device with staging
    C.File type device and nsrcompress
    D.File type device with archiving
    Answer: B

    9. A customer needs to configure a backup solution using EMC NetWorker with a SCSI jukebox directly attached to the EMC NetWorker server. There are two storage nodes dynamically sharing a second jukebox with four tape drives.
    Which EMC NetWorker licenses are required?
    A.1 EMC NetWorker Network edition, 1 Storage Node, and 4 Dynamic Drive Sharing
    B.1 EMC NetWorker Network edition, 2 Storage Nodes, 4 Dynamic Drive Sharing, and 2 Autochangers
    C.1 EMC NetWorker Power edition, 2 Storage Nodes, 4 Dynamic Drive Sharing, and 1 Autochanger
    D.1 EMC NetWorker Power edition, 2 Storage Nodes, and 4 Dynamic Drive Sharing
    Answer: B

    10. An EMC NetWorker customer has a retention policy of 2 years and a browse policy of 6 months for a client. They would like to retain the indexes for all new backups for this client for an additional 30 days.
    How would this be accomplished?
    A.Add 30 days to the client’s browse policy
    B.Add 30 days to the client’s retention policy
    C.Add 30 days to the client’s retention time
    D.Add 30 days to the server’s retention time
    Answer: A

    11. An EMC NetWorker customer installed a NAS system in their environment and wants to use it as a backup-to-disk destination device via CIFS. Which device type should be used?
    A.Advanced File
    B.Celerra File System
    C.File
    D.NDMP
    Answer: D

    12. A customer wants to expand an existing Symmetrix DMX-3 production system for use with backup-to-disk. What do you recommend?
    A.Add ATA disks
    B.Dedicate a quadrant to backup
    C.Use Fibre Channel disks only
    D.Use RAID 3 with the backup LUNs
    Answer: B

    13. A customer has the following backup requirements:
    Must meet short backup window
    Must meet low RTO
    Must backup many highly transactional Oracle databases
    Must eliminate tape
    The customer has two data center sites with ample bandwidth between them but needs to limit utilization as much as possible. Which solution best addresses the customer’s requirements?
    A.A pair of EMC DL3D 3000 at two different sites with replication implemented between them
    B.A pair of EMC DL4000 series at two different sites with replication implemented between them
    C.A pair of EMC DL4000 series with 3D4000 at two different sites with replication implemented between them
    D.A pair of EMC DL4000 series with 3D4000 at two different sites with MirrorView implemented between them
    Answer: C

    14. In an EMC Disk Library (EDL) environment, what describes the auto-archive feature?
    A.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to physical tape with a different barcode
    B.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to physical tape with the same barcode
    C.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to physical tape with a different barcode
    D.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to physical tape with the same barcode
    Answer: D

    15. What is an advantage of implementing Celerra LAN backup-to-disk?
    A.Better compression and encryption algorithms
    B.Improves restore performance due to the RAID 1/0 protection schema of the target volumes
    C.Minimizes storage administration by automatic creation of optimal target file systems
    D.Provides a dedicated target array without the impact of other application data storage
    Answer: C

    16. You are designing a backup and recovery solution using EMC NetWorker and are considering automatic cloning. What is a concern while using this feature?
    A.Additional volumes must be allocated to the default clone pool
    B.Cloning operations may interfere with backup operations
    C.NetWorker client performance may be degraded while cloning is being performed
    D.Server parallelism may need to be increased to allow for the cloning operations
    Answer: B

    17. Which performs the de-duplication process in a DL3D 1500 backup environment?
    A.Back end CLARiiON
    B.Backup Client
    C.Engine
    D.Storage Node
    Answer: C

    18. A customer is concerned about non-intentional SCSI resets destroying backups in their EMC NetWorker environment. Which EMC NetWorker feature should be configured?
    A.Auto Media Verify
    B.Eject Sleep
    C.Idle Device Timeout
    D.Port Polling Period
    Answer: A

    19. An EMC NetWorker customer wants to clone save sets from an EMC Disk Library (EDL) to a physical tape library with the ability to track all tapes in EMC NetWorker.
    Which solution will accomplish this while minimizing SAN usage?
    A.Attach the physical library to the EDL and let it handle the operation
    B.Configure an existing storage node to perform the operation
    C.Configure the EDL with the embedded storage node
    D.Install a second storage node in the environment dedicated to cloning
    Answer: C

    20. A customer wants to clone individual save sets as soon as each completes. Which device do you recommend for the backup target?
    A.Disk
    B.Tape
    C.Virtual tape
    D.WORM
    Answer: A

    免费下载E20-590题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-590题库，其全名为：(Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-590题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-590模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的E20-590题库PDF下载链接

    EMC E20-590学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 E20-590考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-590学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-590考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-590是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-590考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-590考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师E20-590试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-590考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e20-665题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-665考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-665
    问题数量:111 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-03
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:networked storage-ns installation and troubleshooting

    免费e20-665题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-665
    Title : Networked Storage-NS Installation and Troubleshooting Exam

    1. You are able to connect to a web server with Internet Explorer and view it’s contents. However, when you try to ping the server you receive a "Request Timed Out" message. What is the cause?
    A. Incorrect subnet mask
    B. Incorrect default gateway
    C. Firewall blocking ICMP packets
    D. No route to the server’s network
    Answer: C

    2. Which command is used from a UNIX host to display ALL hops to the destination host?
    A. ping
    B. tracert
    C. ifconfig
    D. traceroute
    Answer: D

    3. Which command shows all established connections to a Data Mover?
    A. server_netstat
    B. server_nfsstat
    C. server_sysstat
    D. server_cifsstat
    Answer: A

    4. What is required to join a Celerra CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
    A. DNS, NTP
    B. DNS, WINS
    C. IP interface, Share name
    D. Administrator’s password, NIS
    Answer: A

    5. What is the minimum disk configuration for a Celerra/CLARiiON implementation?
    A. 2 disks and 1 hot spare
    B. 4 disks and 1 hot spare
    C. 5 disks and 1 hot spare
    D. 8 disks and 1 hot spare
    Answer: C

    6. A customer is unable to Telnet into the Control Station of his NS600 from a Windows client. You have verified that the Telnet service is enable on the Control Station, and the customer has also proved network connectivity is working because "ssh" and ftp work fine. What would be the next step in finding out why Telnet is not working?
    A. Check for any firewalls blocking port 23
    B. Check for any firewalls blocking ports 20 & 21
    C. Ping the Control Station to make sure it is running
    D. Run traceroute to verify the path to the Control Station
    Answer: A

    7. You are performing a NAS code upgrade on a Celerra NS Gateway. At what point in the procedure should you run the upgrd-ckvX.bin -r 1 command?
    A. After rebooting the system
    B. After mounting the CD-ROM
    C. Before mounting the CD-ROM
    D. Before putting the passwd and group files on the Data Movers
    Answer: C

    8. Which file shows services and their ports configured on a UNIX host?
    A. /etc/ports
    B. /etc/service
    C. /etc/services
    D. /etc/nsswitch
    Answer: C

    9. Which script is used before a Celerra NAS code upgrade to perform health checks and backups and identify parameter changes?
    A. pre_upgrd.bin
    B. upgrd_ckvX.bin
    C. Linux_savit.bin
    D. universal_upgrd.bin
    Answer: B

    10. You are replacing a Control Station in a Celerra NS series, you have just finished verifying the EMCNAS code version to be installed, and documented the Control Station configuration. What is the next step?
    A. Boot the Control Station
    B. Install the EMCNAS code
    C. Save the server log to a file
    D. Document the Control Station cable connections
    Answer: D

    11. When upgrading the NAS code on a Celerra NS after the Control Station is rebooted, which file system must be mounted in addition to /nas, /nas/dos, /nbsnas before proceeding?
    A. /nas/bin
    B. /nas/var
    C. /nas/site
    D. /nas/sbin
    Answer: B

    12. A host has the following IP address and default gateway. Select the subnet mask that will allow the host to access remote networks.
    IP address: 10.6.230.196
    default gateway: 10.6.128.1
    A. 255.255.128.0
    B. 255.255.192.0
    C. 255.255.224.0
    D. 255.255.255.0
    Answer: A

    13. How many Celerra/CLARiiON LUNs are created in an 8 + 1 RAID 5 configuration?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8
    Answer: A

    14. Which component of SNMP queries SNMP agents to view information, change settings, etc.?
    A. MIB
    B. Agent
    C. Server
    D. Manager
    Answer: D

    15. Which layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) does the "ping" utility test?
    A. Physical and Data Link
    B. Network and Transport
    C. Physical, Data Link, and Network
    D. Data Link, Network and Transport
    Answer: C

    16. Which command is used to identify a primary Data Mover?
    A. nas_server
    B. server_info
    C. nas_standby
    D. server_standby
    Answer: A

    17. In which storage profile does a "4 + 1 RAID 5" disk configuration belong?
    A. clar_r1
    B. clarata_archive
    C. clar_r5_economy
    D. clar_r5_performance
    Answer: D

    18. Which tool is used to test network connectivity?
    A. ping
    B. snoop
    C. netstat
    D. ifconfig
    Answer: A

    19. When performing a Celerra Health Check on a NS Series, the script upgrd_ckvX.bin is run to create NAS backup files. Which directory does it create to store those files?
    A. nas/usr/nsdb_cs
    B. nas/etc/nasdb_cs0
    C. nas/dev/recover_cs
    D. /nas/var/recover_cs0
    Answer: D

    20. Which command is used on a Sun host to obtain the Ethernet address of a network adapter?
    A. NDD
    B. eth0
    C. ifconfig
    D. ipconfig
    Answer: C

    免费下载e20-665题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-665题库，其全名为：(networked storage-ns installation and troubleshooting). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-665题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-665模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-665题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-665学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 e20-665考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-665学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-665考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-665是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-665考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-665考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-665试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-665考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e22-141题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e22-141考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e22-141
    问题数量:180 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-08
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:emc legato cert networker 7 x specialist

    免费e22-141题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E22-141
    Title : EMC Legato Cert Networker 7 x Specialist

    1. In a directed recovery, the NetWorker server named Bongo is the administering client. Flute is the source client and Clarinet is the destination client. How should the NetWorker administrator configure remote access rights to successfully run the directed recovery?
    A. in Flute’s Client Resource Remote Access attribute, list root@Clarinet
    B. in Clarinet’s Client Resource Remote Access attribute, list root@Bongo and root@Flute
    C. in Bongo’s Client Resource Remote Access attribute, list root@Flute and root@Clarinet
    D. in Flute’s Client Resource Remote Access attribute, list root@Bongo and root@Clarinet
    Answer: D

    2. scanner -v /dev/rmt/1cbn returns the following:
    please enter record size for this volume (’q’ to quit)
    What causes this?
    A. The volume label is corrupted or unreadable.
    B. The volume label is written by a pre-NetWorker 7.x version.
    C. scanner cannot read the volume label because the volume is not mounted.
    D. scanner cannot read the volume label because the volume is not rewound.
    Answer: A

    3. What must you do to separate a client’s file backups from database backups in a timely way?
    A. Create one Client resource with different save sets and assign it to one group only.
    B. Create one Client resource with the Save Set All and assign it to two different groups.
    C. Create two Client resources with different Save Set attributes and assign each client to different groups.
    D. Create two Client resources with different Save Set attributes and assign their streams to different pools.
    Answer: C

    4. A tape is brought from another NetWorker server. scanner does not update the client file index, although the Client resource was created on the new NetWorker server. Which two should you check? (Choose two.)
    A. Client ID
    B. Group attribute
    C. client name Aliases
    D. Remote Access attribute
    Answer: AC

    5. Click the Exhibit button.
    The exhibit shows a network after the installation of a second network for backup data traffic. All hostname interfaces on the backup data network have a suffix of -BK.
    What happens if the only change made is changing the client’s Storage Node attribute to SN-BK?
    A. All backups fail.
    B. All backup data and metadata are sent over the backup network.
    C. None of the backup data or metadata are sent over the backup network.
    D. All backup data, but not the metadata, are sent over the backup network.
    Answer: D

    6. Which two commands can you use to recover a single file directly from tape? (Choose two.)
    A. scanner -S ssid devicename filename | uasm -rv
    B. scanner -S ssid devicename | uasm -rv filename
    C. scanner -S ssid devicename | uasm -rv -m source=dest filename
    D. scanner -i -S ssid devicename | rsh client name ‘(cd destdir; uasm -rv filename)’
    Answer: BC

    7. A volume will be scanned into a new offsite NetWorker server to recover a client. Currently this client does not exist on the new NetWorker server. Which two resources does the scanner command require to exist on the new NetWorker server? (Choose two.)
    A. the original pool
    B. the original group
    C. the original client
    D. the original device
    Answer: AC

    8. The firewall is removed from a data zone. The administrator runs the following command to reset the port range for client flute to Default values:
    nsrports -C 7937-9936 -S 10001-30000
    After restarting nsrexecd on the client, a scheduled backup for this client only fails and the following error is given::
    Error: Cannot bind socket to service port in configured range on system flute
    What is the likely cause of this failure?
    A. The administrator used a wrong command.
    B. The administrator used a wrong port range.
    C. The administrator forgot to restart the NetWorker services on the client.
    D. The administrator forgot to restart the NetWorker services on the server.
    Answer: B

    9. Where must you have a valid entry if you want to configure a new autochanger at your storage node?
    A. in the server’s Device Host list
    B. in the server’s Administrators list
    C. in the client’s Remote Access list
    D. in the client’s Remote User/Password list
    Answer: B

    10. Which statement is true about the Remote Access All Clients privilege and the Remote Access attribute?
    A. Both must be configured to perform a directed recovery.
    B. The Remote Access attribute is required in cluster environments only.
    C. The Remote Access All Clients privilege overrides the Remote Access attribute.
    D. A user who is already defined as an administrator of the NetWorker server must be included in this attribute.
    Answer: C

    11. Which three practices can improve performance within a data zone? (Choose three.)
    A. configuring large clients as storage nodes
    B. distributing storage nodes across subnets
    C. configuring an additional NetWorker server
    D. configuring software compression on all clients
    E. configuring large clients as dedicated storage nodes
    Answer: ABE

    12. What is the result of leaving the /nsr/res/servers file empty on a client?
    A. Any NetWorker server is able to initiate a backup of that client.
    B. All backups will fail with the error "Cannot request command execution."
    C. The client can be backed up by any NetWorker server, providing the server resides within the same subnet.
    D. Before a NetWorker server can initiate a save of that client, it is prompted for an administrative user name and password.
    Answer: A

    13. Which two conditions are insecure? (Choose two.)
    A. an empty servers file
    B. a Remote Access list of *@*
    C. an empty Remote Access list
    D. a servers file containing only *@*
    Answer: AB

    14. When reviewing NetWorker logs, it is discovered that someone without proper permissions recovered data previously backed up from a secure file server named Alto. How can access to Alto’s backed up data be made more secure?
    A. Remove all entries from the servers file on Alto.
    B. Reduce the number of connection ports on Alto.
    C. Remove all entries from Alto’s Remote Access list.
    D. Remove all entries from Alto’s Remote User and Password attributes.
    Answer: C

    15. You backed up some data on a NetWorker storage node in evaluation mode. The evaluation period expired before you installed the storage node enabler code. Which statement is correct?
    A. You cannot recover the backed-up data to the storage node.
    B. You cannot recover the backed-up data to the NetWorker server.
    C. You can delete the expired storage node license and re-create it using the same code.
    D. You can recover the backed-up data to the storage node if you have a jukebox enabler.
    Answer: A

    16. Storage nodes sn-1(Solaris) and sn-2(Windows) share a tape drive in a DDS environment. A tape has been labeled and written using sn-1. When trying to read the same tape using sn-2, block size errors occur. What is wrong?
    A. Sleep timers are not correctly set.
    B. The tape is labeled with the wrong block size.
    C. The tape is labeled under a different NetWorker version.
    D. The written block size cannot be handled by HBA/SCSI controller on sn-2.
    Answer: D

    17. You have a clustered NetWorker storage node with nodes A and B. What needs to be configured so that a backup on node "A" fails over completely to node B if node A crashes?
    A. Add curphyhost first to the virtual client’s storage nodes affinity list.
    B. Add nsrserverhost first to the virtual client’s storage nodes affinity list.
    C. Add nsrserverhost to the NetWorker server’s storage nodes affinity list.
    D. Add curphyhost to the storage nodes affinity list for each physical client.
    Answer: A

    18. A NetWorker client and its storage node are in your company’s Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). The NetWorker server is behind your firewall. Which type of data should you let pass through the firewall?
    A. jukebox and security data
    B. resource configuration data
    C. backup and recovery save streams
    D. client file index and media database data
    Answer: D

    19. What are two methods used to authorize NetWorker servers Horn and Flute to back up client Tuba with the least security risk? (Choose two.)
    A. Configure nsrexecd to use nsrexecd -s Horn -s Flute.
    B. Remove all entries from /nsr/res/servers file on Tuba and restart nsrexecd service.
    C. Make Flute and Horn the only entries in the /nsr/res/servers file on Tuba and restart nsrexecd.
    D. Stop the nsrexecd service on Tuba and run the command "nsrexecd -i ipaddress_of_Horn -i ipaddress_of_Flute.
    Answer: AC

    20. What are two benefits of a multi-homed NetWorker client? (Choose two.)
    A. Backups are more reliable.
    B. Backups can fail over to a different network.
    C. Backup traffic is offloaded to a second network.
    D. Firewall and some security issues can be avoided.
    Answer: CD

    免费下载e22-141题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Legato Cert认证 e22-141题库，其全名为：(emc legato cert networker 7 x specialist). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e22-141题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e22-141模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e22-141题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e22-141学习指南

    Legato Cert认证 e22-141考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e22-141学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e22-141考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e22-141是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e22-141考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e22-141考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e22-141试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e22-141考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e20-870题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-870考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-870
    问题数量:120 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-07
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Storage Management for Implementation Engineers

    免费e20-870题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-870
    Title : Storage Management Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers

    1. A ControlCenter user cannot push an Oracle Agent to Host XYZ because the Oracle Agent is NOT available in the install wizard list. Which three [3] would cause this?
    A. OS type not supported
    B. Not licensed in the console
    C. Master agent on Host XYZ is not running
    D. Existing entry in the ctg.ini file on Host XYZ
    E. Remote_install directory has an existing Oracle Agent folder entry for Host XYZ
    Answer: ADE

    2. A new user "smith" is created on the ControlCenter server. This user is then added as a default ControlCenter Console user by the ControlCenter administrator. User "smith" should be allowed to perform only configuration and TimeFinder operations on all discovered Symmetrix units in ControlCenter. How can this be set up?
    A. Assign ECC Administrators and Symmetrix Configuration Manager rules to "smith"
    B. Add "smith" to ECC Administrators and Symmetrix Data Protection Manager user groups
    C. Assign Symmetrix Configuration Manager and Symmetrix Data Protection Manager rules to "smith"
    D. Add "smith" to Symmetrix Configuration Manager and Symmetrix Data Protection Manager user groups
    Answer: D

    3. In order for repetitive allocation task to be successful, which prerequisite needs to be in place before provisioning?
    A. Zoning pools
    B. Storage pools
    C. Allocation pools
    D. Device group pools
    Answer: B

    4. Your customer has a large two-Store distributed infrastructure which has been designed to manage their environment of 550 small hosts and 10 medium hosts. In the EMC published guidelines the customer’s infrastructure is detailed as being able to discover 125 medium hosts or 13 large hosts in a single, one-hour off-peak timeslot. What is the minimum number of one-hour off-peak time slots that must be configured to discover this environment on a daily basis?
    A. One
    B. Three
    C. Four
    D. Five
    Answer: A

    5. Click the Exhibit button.
    The Storage Provisioning Service Policy for a Sun host was created with the isable host actions box unchecked.
    Which file is modified when the policy is executed?
    A. The /etc/hosts file is modified
    B. The /etc/system file is modified
    C. The /kernel/drv/sd.conf file is modified
    D. The /kernel/drv/lpfc.conf file is modified
    Answer: C

    6. After ensuring that all of the DCPs are running, the administrator needs to verify each of the reporting applications to ensure that they are correctly installed, configured, and able to create reports from the collected data. Select two [2] of the steps in StorageScope needed to verify the setup and to verify that they have run.
    A. Job Details selection
    B. Run reports now button
    C. Report History selection
    D. Report Exports selection
    E. Update reports now button
    Answer: BC

    7. After a lightning strike, a Connectrix M series switch was replaced with an identical spare. The new switch was configured using Telnet. Now, Storage Provisioning Services (SPS) reports errors during attempts to allocate certain volumes. Why?
    A. SNMP community is wrong
    B. Telnet is no longer supported
    C. An active zoneset is obsolete
    D. Switch password was changed
    Answer: C

    8. In ControlCenter when the Oracle Agent is communicating through a firewall in a Windows environment. Which port needs to be open?
    A. 10869
    B. 10979
    C. 10989
    D. 10999
    Answer: D

    9. A customer wants to give only user access view to StorageScope reports. Which rule applies?
    A. User must be added to the Administrators Group
    B. User must be added to the StorageScope View Rule
    C. User must be added to the StorageScope Administrator Group
    D. All users, by default, have access to view StorageScope reports
    Answer: D

    10. What must be uninstalled to upgrade to ControlCenter 5.2 from an earlier version?
    A. StorageScope API
    B. Performance View
    C. StorageScope Server
    D. Integration Gateway Agent
    Answer: B

    11. Which method do you use to install the ControlCenter Command History Export Utility?
    A. Install from the ControlCenter CD1
    B. Download and install from Powerlink
    C. Push the utility from the ControlCenter Console
    D. Install from the ControlCenter Installation wizard
    Answer: B

    12. How would an administrator define Windows user groups that correspond to functional VisualSAN roles?
    A. Use the "Administration" tab
    B. Edit the NetworkSecurity.properties file
    C. Use the "Settings>Role-Based Setting" menu
    D. Assign roles using the Windows Management Interface
    Answer: B

    13. Which two [2] are true about the StorageScope API?
    A. Must be installed on the Repository host
    B. Generates XML files for custom reporting
    C. Must be installed on the StorageScope Server
    D. Provides an ODBC connection to the Repository
    E. Provides access to database views for custom reporting
    Answer: AE

    14. A new Cisco MDS 9000 series switch has to be discovered in ControlCenter. What are two [2] prerequisite steps that must be performed on the switch to ensure a successful discovery?
    A. All HBAs and Storage Ports are cabled
    B. Create an SNMP community with rw privileges
    C. Create SNMPv3 users with administrative privileges
    D. Set up the FCC Agent Host as an SNMPv3 trap recipient
    E. Check that the SAN-OS version is supported by ControlCenter
    Answer: BE

    15. A customer wants his default SQL Server instance discovered in ControlCenter 5.2. Which action must be taken for a successful discovery?
    A. Enter the SQL Server Hostname in the DB Instance field of the assisted discovery interface
    B. Enter the name of the specific SQL Server database (e.g., Northwind) in the DB Instance field of the assisted discovery interface
    C. Create a net service connection for the SQL Server instance on the Mapping Agent Host. Then enter the net service name in the DB Instance field of the assisted discovery interface
    D. Create an ODBC Data Source Name (DSN) for the SQL Server instance on the ControlCenter Server Host. Then enter the DSN in the DB Instance field of the assisted discovery interface
    Answer: A

    16. A SAN administrator is concerned that ControlCenter alerts regarding unexpected zoning changes are not being reported quickly enough. What needs to be edited to reduce the time taken to alert on this event?
    A. Active Zone Sets Out of Sync Alert
    B. Discovery Scan Data Collection Policy
    C. Fabric Validation Data Collection Policy
    D. Communication Device Status Change Alert
    Answer: C

    17. A customer wants to export reports from the StorageScope Web interface. Which two [2] formats can be used?
    A. XML
    B. JPG
    C. PDF
    D. CSV
    E. HTML
    Answer: AD

    18. ControlCenter 5.2 SP1 SAN Manager currently supports importing of aliases for which switches?
    A. Cisco MDS9216
    B. Brocade DS-32B
    C. Brocade DS-16B
    D. McData DS-140M
    Answer: D

    19. The Finance group wants reporting on storage utilization of its applications in StorageScope. Which two [2] steps must be performed?
    A. Identify Managed Objects used by the application
    B. Create user-defined groups in ControlCenter Server
    C. Create user-defined groups in StorageScope Server
    D. Create user-defined storage pools in ControlCenter Console
    E. Move the Managed Objects used by the application into a ControlCenter Console group
    Answer: AE

    20. A customer has installed SQL Server entirely on devices allocated from a Symmetrix array. Which ControlCenter agent includes alerts that will trigger when the response time of database disk I/Os becomes too high?
    A. Host Agent for Windows
    B. Common Mapping Agent
    C. Storage Agent for Symmetrix
    D. Database Agent for SQL Server
    Answer: A

    免费下载e20-870题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-870题库，其全名为：(Storage Management for Implementation Engineers). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-870题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-870模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-870题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-870学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 e20-870考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-870学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-870考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-870是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-870考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-870考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-870试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-870考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

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  • e20-860题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-860考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-860
    问题数量:155 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-08-03
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:EMC NAS Implementation Engineer Expert Exam

    免费e20-860题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-860
    Title : Network Attached Storage Expert Exam for Implementation Engs

    1. Disk Director prefetching is initiated by two sequential accesses to a volume. Once prefetch is initiated, the Symmetrix will begin pulling the next two successive tracks into cache.
    At what point will the Symmetrix begin to pull the next five successive tracks into cache?
    A. After 10 sequential accesses to the volume
    B. After 100 sequential accesses to the volume
    C. After 150 sequential accesses to the volume
    D. After 50 sequential accesses to the volume
    Answer: B

    2. Rob’s Distribution Center has a Windows environment consisting of about 400 users. They are primarily using CIFS on an EMC Celerra. Users are complaining about poor performance when opening their files.
    Which item should Joe’s system administrator look for when running a "server_cifsstat server_2" command?
    A. An excessive network delay value
    B. High Concurrent connections values
    C. High ConnectTree values
    D. High ReadX average Service Response Times
    Answer: D

    3. One of the primary service policies on a Symmetrix is Dynamic Mirror Service Policy (DMSP). How is it set?
    A. By a user command issued via SMC
    B. A configuration change in the bin file
    C. Dynamically based on I/O characteristics
    D. Via QOS values set in the Host Component
    Answer: B

    4. A storage administrator noticed that the access to network drives on the Celerra slows down at about half past the hour every day. The local EMC service person told them that was normal, since a checkpoint is created 25 minutes past the hour every day.
    Which tool could be used to show the performance degradation?
    A. Celerra Monitor
    B. ControlCenter Performance Monitor
    C. Ethereal/Wireshark
    D. Performance Monitor
    Answer: A

    5. What is the name of the directory of data that is used to maintain the status of cache allocation for each logical volume in a Symmetrix?
    A. Bit Table
    B. Block Map
    C. Cache Map
    D. Track Table
    Answer: D

    6. Mowgli Inc. is a small motor repair company that has expanded operations to another location 100 miles away. When the new office network was connected to the main office, the iSCSI Exchange servers in the new branch were experiencing excessive response times by Microsoft performance standards.
    What could cause this behavior?
    A. iSCSI only works on the local subnet and not on a remote one.
    B. The Exchange servers are also running backups causing the additional latency.
    C. The Exchange servers need TOE cards to decrease network latency.
    D. The network delay is too high to support a working iSCSI environment.
    Answer: D

    7. Which Symmetrix policy is designed to minimize head movement for read operations when data is not available in cache memory?
    A. Dynamic Split Mirror Policy
    B. Enginuity Performance Algorithm Policy
    C. Interleave Service Policy
    D. Split Service Policy
    Answer: D

    8. An upgrade of twelve 300 GB Fibre Channel disks for an existing DMX-3 will be configured using RAID 5 3+1.
    How should the resulting space be configured for optimal file system performance with the Celerra?
    A. Use AVM with a user-defined pool using the slice option to maximize the number of disks per volume
    B. Use AVM with the symm_std pool using the slice option to maximize the number of disks per volume
    C. Use Manual Volume Management for maximum spindle count and minimize hotspots
    D. Use Symmetrix metavolumes to minimize hotspots and do not slice the volume
    Answer: C

    9. A storage administrator recently purchased 32 FC drives for a DMX-4. The drives will be set up in a RAID 5 3+1 configuration.
    How would you suggest the customer configure new file systems to obtain best performance?
    A. RAID 5 3+1 is not supported for the Celerra volumes.
    B. Use AVM with custom pools to configure the file systems.
    C. Use manual volume creation to maximize spindle count and minimize hotspots.
    D. Use Symmetrix metavolumes with manual creation of Celerra slice volumes to maximize spindle count and minimize hotspots.
    Answer: C

    10. A storage administrator is disappointed with the performance of an EMC solution. The administrator points out that Exchange server response time from the server is too slow.
    How should performance have been positioned with the customer before the implementation?
    A. The customer and seller should have made a prearranged agreement to improve performance.
    B. The customer and seller should have made a prearranged agreement on bandwidth requirements.
    C. The customer and seller should have made a prearranged agreement on measurement and level of expected performance.
    D. The customer and seller should have made a prearranged agreement for a notable improvement in server and application responses measured in IOPS, application response time, or bandwidth improvement.
    Answer: C

    11. EMC has observed 20% to 30% improvement in back-end disk performance when Dynamic Mirror Service Policy (DMSP) is used, compared to when each of the mirrored pair serves 50% of the read I/Os.
    Which configuration would show this improvement?
    A. BCV creation
    B. RAID 1/0
    C. RAID 10
    D. RAID 5
    Answer: C

    12. In a Symmetrix DMX-4 the GigE IPv4/v6 feature is a built-in data encryption processor that enables configuration on a per-port basis.
    What are the two places this feature can be defined/enabled?
    A. Bin and SYMCLI
    B. Service processor and Bin
    C. SMC and service processor
    D. SYMCLI and SMC
    Answer: C

    13. An Exchange administrator has consolidated the company’s four Exchange stores onto a single Data Mover. The performance of the Exchange stores appears to be slow.
    What should have been done to properly size the solution and set expectations for performance before implementation?
    A. A benchmark for each server needs to be set, I/O analysis needs to be completed for each server, and performance expectations need to be agreed on between the seller and company.
    B. Define how much storage is required, what type of disks are required, what RAID type will be used, and how much money is to be spent on the project.
    C. General expectations for a notable improvement in server and application responses measured in IOPS, CPU utilization, application response time, or bandwidth improvement.
    D. Show the ROI for the project, what financing options are available, in which quarter will the deal be completed, and what kind of performance is expected.
    Answer: A

    14. A Symmetrix is initially configured (after power-up) with 200 logical volumes of the same size and emulation.
    How much of the total available cache resource is distributed per volume?
    A. 0%
    B. 0.5%
    C. 1.0%
    D. 100%
    Answer: B

    15. How does PermaCache keep data in cache?
    A. Based on I/O
    B. Based on read rate
    C. Dynamically
    D. Statically
    Answer: D

    16. Which EMC recommended tool is available for download to analyze network traffic?
    A. Celerra Monitor
    B. EMC ControlCenter
    C. Ethereal/Wireshark
    D. Iometer
    Answer: C

    17. Two Celerras are set up 10 km apart in an active/passive SRDF configuration. After a performance analysis, the recommendation is to set the copy process on one of the file systems to a higher priority.
    What will be affected on the back end when setting QOS on the DMX?
    A. It is set on the cache extents that are used by that file system’s volumes.
    B. It is set on the Device Group and affects all filesystems on those volumes.
    C. It is set on the front-end port and affects all addressed volume on the path.
    D. It is set on the SRDF director and thus affects all volumes on the director.
    Answer: B

    18. The Symmetrix supports multiple types of protection including RAID, N+2 hardware, and memory error correction.
    Which method is best described as "striped pair of mirrored disks" in an open system configuration?
    A. RAID 1/0
    B. RAID 10
    C. RAID 5
    D. RAID 6
    Answer: A

    19. In the Symmetrix DMX-4, global memory director operations are redundant by way of two global memory directors working as a pair.
    Which protection methodology is this?
    A. Global memory access path protection
    B. Global memory chip-level redundancy
    C. Longitude redundancy code (LRC)
    D. Redundant global memory director
    Answer: D

    20. Tracy is an administrator for a NAS gateway with eight Symmetrix 3+1 RAID 5 groups with dvols equally distributed. Each dvol is 6 GB in size. Tracy needs to create a 32 GB file system.
    How should she create the file system to obtain the best performance?
    A. Use d10, d11, d12, d13
    B. Use d10, d11, d12, d13, d14 with the slice option
    C. Use d10, d11, d12, d13, d14, d15
    D. Use d10, d11, d12, d13, d14, d15, d16, d17 with the slice option
    Answer: D

    免费下载e20-860题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-860题库，其全名为：(EMC NAS Implementation Engineer Expert Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-860题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-860模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-860题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-860学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 e20-860考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-860学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-860考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-860是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-860考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-860考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-860试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-860考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e20-855题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-855考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-855
    问题数量:114 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-05
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage-SAN Expert for Implementation Engineers

    免费e20-855题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-855
    Title : Networked Storage-SAN Expert Exam, Implementation Engineers

    1. A Customer is unable to monitor a Connectrix MDS switch from ControlCenter. What must be done for the customer to monitor the switch?
    A. Discover the switch in ControlCenter
    B. Install On-Alert on ControlCenter server
    C. Enable SNMP V1on the Connectrix MDS
    D. Install the Cisco MIBs on the Connectrix MDS
    Answer: C

    2. Which MP-2640M feature enhances the security of the environment when you are ocking down?the domain IDs of E-ports or R-ports?
    A. Set FCID
    B. Lock FCID
    C. Insistent Domain ID
    D. Persistent Domain ID
    Answer: C

    3. Click the Exhibit button. What would the fabric display in the diagram look like using Connectrix Manager?
    A. You would only see the local fabric
    B. You would not see anything in the display
    C. You would see two fabrics displayed independent of each other
    D. You would see a single fabric containing all local and remote switches
    Answer: D

    4. Click the Exhibit button. The customer added a new iSCSI server to the MP-1620M. They can not access the storage array on IP address 10.19.9. The customer’s network is setup for Fast Ethernet. Please see exhibit. What is the issue?
    A. Port Speed setting is wrong
    B. Port Parameter setting is wrong
    C. Autonegotiations setting is wrong
    D. iSCSI/iFCP parameter setting is wrong
    Answer: A

    5. Your customer has two SAN islands built with two ED64Ms in each fabric. Due to the end of the lease these are being replaced with ED-12000Bs. What are the steps to migrate the fabrics without recreating the zones?
    A. Export the zones, edit them with a text editor and import them
    B. Open Connectrix Manager, go to the fabric in question and click on "Import Fabric Topology"
    C. Open Connectrix Manager, go to the fabric in question and click on "Export Fabric Topology"
    D. Obtain IP address, user login and password for both switches and use Zone_convert.exe to migrate
    Answer: D

    6. Click the Exhibit button. A customer sends you the nsshow output (see diagram) from a DS-16B2 switch. What PID format is the switch using?
    A. Core PID
    B. Native PID
    C. Extended PID
    D. Not enough information
    Answer: A

    7. Which security IP protocol would you implement if you required host-switch authentication?
    A. IVR
    B. ISAKMP
    C. DHCHAP
    D. SANTegrity
    Answer: C

    8. Customer added three new servers to an existing SAN consisting of two fabrics. Each fabric consists of two switches with two ISLs. This change negatively impacted performance. Throughput is as follows: 20MB/s on Host HBAs at 4K block size 50MB/s on Symmetrix on the FA ports 60MB/s on each ISL port The physical disks are 80% utilized but with 100% cache-hit ratio. What should the customer do to improve performance?
    A. Add 16k to the block size
    B. Add two ISLs to the fabric
    C. Add more disks to the storage
    D. Add two FA ports to the storage
    Answer: B

    9. Your customer recently added a Celerra to their environment and implemented iSCSI on Windows 2003 servers. They created the IQN name for the Windows servers via a script and the name looked as follows: iqn.2003-04.com.emc.HostA.0083 The servers cannot see the iSCSI LUNs. What is the reason for this?
    A. The network portal is not reachable
    B. Celerra converts upper case into lower case and Windows does not
    C. Customer download and installed the latest iSCSI driver from Microsoft’s website
    D. Customer download and installed the latest iSCSI driver from the HBA vendor’s website
    Answer: B

    10. Click the Exhibit button. What is the calculated cost from host to storage, in the diagram, if a link fails in a port channel group?
    A. 250
    B. 375
    C. 500
    D. 1500
    Answer: C

    11. Customer has implemented HP-UX Campus Cluster using dual-lock disks. They have experienced "split brain" syndrome in the past. What is a permanent fix for this problem?
    A. Unlock cluster lock disks
    B. Implement a single lock disk
    C. Add one more node to both sides of the cluster
    D. Implement multiple network and heartbeat configurations for each node in the cluster
    Answer: D

    12. Your customer has recently purchased a second site and is now in the process of connecting the second site to the existing environment. Customer is using DS16B2, DS32B2 and ED-24000B switches and directors. Sever problems, such as unstable and unmanageable fabric, occurred after connecting the two sites with an MPR 7420. How could this have been prevented?
    A. Set all member switches WAN_BB to 256
    B. Set all member switches PID format set to 0
    C. Set fabric parameters WAN_TOV and ED_TOV
    D. Set Management Server on the multi-protocol router to disable
    Answer: D

    13. Click the Exhibit button. The customer wants to collapse the environment shown in the exhibit into two switches. They do not require any growth. What is the smallest switch they can use to accomplish this requirement?
    A. 32 port
    B. 64 port
    C. 140 port
    D. 256 port
    Answer: B

    14. Your customer is booting their dual-attached HP-UX servers from the DMX via an M-series SAN. They are using PowerPath 4.x. Over the weekend they added a new switch and changed some storage cabling. Now they cannot boot up the servers. What is the reason for this?
    A. Customer did not export the zoning information
    B. Customer did not update the masking information in the VCMDB
    C. Customer did not remove the failed links with powermt check
    D. Customer did not delete the hardware path links to the storage prior to the changes
    Answer: D

    15. The customer has 500 identical servers that need to be allocated the same amount of storage space and storage protection. This task is estimated to take 100 man hours. Which ControlCenter Storage Provisioning Services steps will reduce the time it takes to provision storage to 10 man hours?
    A. Create storage pool, drag storage to the storage pool, highlight the host and allocate storage to the hosts
    B. Create storage policy, drag storage to the storage pool, highlight the host and allocate storage to the hosts
    C. Create host and storage pools, drag storage to the storage pool, highlight host pool and allocate storage to the hosts
    D. Create host and storage pools, drag host pool to the storage policy, highlight host pool and allocate storage to the hosts
    Answer: A

    16. Which iSCSI discovery method requires the target’s IP address, TCP port, and iSCSI target name?
    A. Static
    B. BootP
    C. Discovery
    D. Zero-configuration
    Answer: A

    17. Your customer is implementing a META SAN in a B-series AP-7420B environment. They want to connect a host from fabric A with storage in fabric B. The host is connected to port 14 on the switch with Domain ID 2. The storage port is on port 7 on a switch with Domain ID 4. The customer created in both of the fabrics the zones with the following command: zonecreate "lsan_hostA_storageB", "2, 14" and zoneadd "lsan_hostA_storageB", "4, 7". After enabling the config the customer cannot see the storage. What went wrong?
    A. InterVSAN Routing was not enabled
    B. Used the wrong ports for the zoning
    C. VSAN parameters are not configured correctly
    D. Port and Domain IDs are not valid for LSAN zoning
    Answer: D

    18. Click the Exhibit button. The customer has multiple MDS 9500 and MDS 9200 directors and switches. They need to have the firmware of the MDS 9216 upgraded. The Fabric Manager’s Software Install Wizard shown in the exhibit shows a problem that must be addressed before continuing the upgrade. What is likely to be the problem?
    A. The file copy mode is wrong
    B. The system file is wrong type
    C. The Kickstart file is wrong type
    D. Fabric Manager is the wrong version
    Answer: C

    19. Your customer has three fabric islands. One fabric island has three ED-1032s. Two other fabric islands have two DS16B2s in each. The customer wants to migrate to two fabrics built of two MDS 9509s in each fabric. Several SUN Solaris servers must be migrated on-line to the new fabrics. What are two [2] steps required to perform this migration?
    A. Disable one path to the fabric
    B. Apply the zoning to the new switch
    C. Reactivate the disabled path on the new fabric with PowerPath commands and set the speed to 1GB
    D. Reactivate the disabled path on the new fabric with PowerPath commands and set the speed to 2GB
    Your customer has three fabric islands. One fabric island has three ED-1032s. Two other fabric islands have two DS16B2s in each. The customer
    wants to migrate to two fabrics built of two MDS 9509s in each fabric. Several SUN Solaris servers must be migrated on-line to the new fabrics.
    Answer: AC

    20. Customer requires dynamic SAN routing and load balancing across multiple links. Which Connectrix B-series routing policies should be used?
    A. Link-based
    B. Port-based
    C. Load-based
    D. Device-based
    Answer: D

    免费下载e20-855题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-855题库，其全名为：(Networked Storage-SAN Expert for Implementation Engineers). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-855题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-855模拟测试题的下载链接

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    EMC e20-855学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 e20-855考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-855学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-855考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-855是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-855考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-855考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-855试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-855考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

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  • E20-370题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-370考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-370
    问题数量:180 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-02
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage – CAS Implementation

    免费E20-370题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-370
    Title : EMC Networked Storage – NAS Implementation Exam

    1. How do you launch the CUA Monitor?
    A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services
    B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000
    C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227
    D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu
    Answer: C

    2. Click the exhibit button.
    Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: A

    3. What is the primary benefit of the GM naming scheme?
    A. Combination of the MD5 plus SHA-256 hash algorithms
    B. Containerizes small files for increased performance
    C. Faster for both ingest and cluster operations
    D. Single Instance Storage
    Answer: C

    4. What remains after an object is deleted from Centera by an application?
    A. Copy of the CDF
    B. Copy of the object
    C. Nothing will remain
    D. Reflection
    Answer: D

    5. A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production. How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster?
    A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI
    B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data
    C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data
    D. Can not be done, data remains on the cluster
    Answer: C

    6. What is the function of garbage collection?
    A. Delete all CDFs with elapsed retention periods
    B. Delete all reflections which do not contain pointers to blobs
    C. Delete blobs that have no associated CDF
    D. Delete virtual pools which do not contain data
    Answer: C

    7. Which naming scheme facilitates single instance storage?
    A. CPM
    B. GM
    C. M++
    D. SSPF
    Answer: C

    8. The customer’s Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera. What is a possible problem?
    A. CE+ is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera
    B. PEA file was never provided to the application
    C. Replication wasn’t turned on[
    D. Storage pool creation not completed
    Answer: B

    9. Which tool is used to create domains for use with Centera Console?
    A. Centera CLI
    B. Centera Console CLI
    C. Centera Viewer
    D. PDM
    Answer: A

    10. Which management role is required for the profile to be used by Centera Console?
    A. Accesscontrol role
    B. Audit role
    C. Monitor role
    D. Replication role
    Answer: C

    11. What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting?
    A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary cluster
    B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the secondary Centera
    C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool
    D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power rail
    Answer: A

    12. What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube?
    A. 4
    B. 8
    C. 16
    D. 32
    Answer: C

    13. With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work?
    A. NDMP compatible systems
    B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities
    C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system
    D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system
    Answer: D

    14. Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool. An access profile has already been created.
    Sequence the following steps to migrate clips:
    1) Grant the profile access to the pool
    2) Create application virtual pool
    3) Start migrating poolmappings
    4) Set the home pool for the access profile
    5) Create poolmapping
    A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
    B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
    C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
    D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
    Answer: A

    15. By default, how many different file sizes does Centera Verify use to perform tests?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: C

    16. What is an example of the command to turn CPP on when the license has been entered?
    A. set content protection parity on
    B. set protection CPP
    C. set protection mode CPP
    D. set protection write parity 250k
    Answer: D

    17. How can an application get authenticated by the Centera?
    A. Application sends the PAI-file encrypted to Centera as part of the connection process
    B. Connect string contains IP-Address of one or more access nodes, and a valid pair of name and secret
    C. Send IP address of all access nodes and correct subnet mask as part of the connect string
    D. System administrator has to set an environment variable, which points to the location of the PAI-module
    Answer: B

    18. Which item is responsible for granting capabilities?
    A. Access profile
    B. ACL’s
    C. CentraStar Mode (Basic, Governance or CE+)
    D. Cluster profile
    Answer: B

    19. What is an "unbundled" cluster?
    A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to deploy
    B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer
    C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer
    D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed
    Answer: D

    20. What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi-Directional?
    A. Chain and Inward Star
    B. Multipoint to Point and Chain
    C. Point to Multipoint and Link
    D. Ring and Star
    Answer: A

    免费下载E20-370题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-370题库，其全名为：(Networked Storage – CAS Implementation). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-370题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-370模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的E20-370题库PDF下载链接

    EMC E20-370学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 E20-370考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-370学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-370考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-370是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-370考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-370考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师E20-370试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-370考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e20-845题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-845考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-845
    问题数量:199 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-04
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Business Continuity Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers

    免费e20-845题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-845
    Title : Business Continuity Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers

    1. A customer is implementing SRDF/A over GigE but is having problems getting through the corporate firewall.
    What are the first steps for troubleshooting?
    A.Verify cache on both DMXs exactly match, and COVDs are defined on both DMXs
    B.Verify the SRDF link TCP/IP port matches on each DMX, and that port is open on the firewall(s)
    C.Verify the Fibre adapters are configured as SNOW resources, and COVDs are properly defined in the bin files
    D.Turn off data compression on the GigE adapters, verify TCP/IP addresses on both DMXs, and verify SNOW is defined on the SRDF GigE adapters’ bin file.
    Answer: B

    2. Click the Exhibit button.
    Based on the symrdf query output, what is needed to make the state of RDF pairs consistent?
    A.Change SRDF to synchronous mode, perform SRDF update, then change SRDF to asynchronous mode
    B.Change SRDF to adaptive copy mode, perform SRDF update, then change SRDF to asynchronous mode
    C.Change SRDF to adaptive copy mode, perform SRDF resume, then change SRDF to asynchronous mode.
    D.Change SRDF to synchronous mode, write disable R2, perform SRDF failover, perform SRDF resume, then change SRDF to asynchronous mode
    Answer: C

    3. You need to configure the volume layout for Oracle on a Linux server that
    will reside on the Symmetrix DMX. You also need to minimize performance issues resulting from partition misalignment on the physical disks.
    Which tool is used to align the disk partition?
    A.fdisk
    B.format
    C.Diskpar
    D.Diskpart
    Answer: A

    4. You are validating a remote replica configuration where a RAID-1 protected R1 device needs to be replicated remotely to a RAID-1 protected R2 device. The source R1 device already is a part of a TimeFinder concurrent BCV configuration.
    What should you consider to validate the configuration?
    A.The number of I/Os between R1 and BCVs
    B.Whether the R2 device is being remotely replicated to a RBCV
    C.The number of mirror positions available to the RDF target device
    D.The number of mirror positions available to the RDF source device
    Answer: D

    5. A customer is using a RAID-1 standard device that already has a paired BCV and one CopyOnAccess Clone copy.
    What is the maximum number of additional CopyOnWrite Snap sessions that the customer can create on this device?
    A.1
    B.7
    C.13
    D.16
    Answer: C

    6. A customer wants to split a BCV copy of the production database once a week and then use Clones of the BCV for testing.
    Which operations are required to make a Clone usable by a host?
    A.Activate the Clone and split the Clone
    B.Establish the Clone and split the Clone
    C.Split the BCV, create the Clone, and activate the Clone
    D.Establish the BCV, create the Clone, and mount the Clone
    Answer: C

    7. You are planning a new replication of an online transaction processing (OLTP) Oracle database to a remote Symmetrix. The requirements for the task are:
    1. The distance between the local and remote sites is 1600 km
    2. The local database must remain online
    3. The customer requires only a restartable copy of the database on the target site
    4. The task should have a minimum performance impact to the local database
    Choose the best set of EMC technologies for the implementation.
    A.R2, RBCV, Instant Split Technology, and SRDF/DM
    B.R1/BCV, R2, Instant Split Technology, and SRDF/S
    C.R2, RBCV, Consistent Split Technology, and SRDF/S
    D.SRDF/A or SRDF/AR single hop
    Answer: D

    8. Click the Exhibit button.
    A customer receives an error when trying to back up Exchange using TEIM. The error is, "EMC:ResourcePak_TEIM SymDbVssControl iExchDbVssControl::IEMCVSSRequestor_BackupServer failed." The databases on the Exchange Server are laid out as shown.
    Which is most likely the cause of the error?
    A.Exchange production volumes are corrupt
    B.There is insufficient time to split all the volumes
    C.Services for Exchange on the backup host are started
    D.Services for Exchange on the production host are down
    Answer: B

    9. You are implementing SRDF at a customer site, and the customer asks you to configure three additional R1 devices on the source Symmetrix and corresponding R2 devices on the target Symmetrix. You have a host attached to the Symmetrix with SYMCLI already installed, and you have created a device file.
    Which operation(s) will create the SRDF device pairs and establish them?
    A.symrdf createpair command with -establish
    B.symrdf createpair command followed by symmir establish command
    C.symmir createpair command followed by symmir establish command
    D.symcfg createpair command followed by symdev establish command
    Answer: A

    10. A customer has implemented SRDF over Fibre Channel at a distance of 10 km. The two Symms are direct-connected. The customer is experiencing poor link throughput with this solution.
    What will fix the problem?
    A.Install 2GB HBAs
    B.Perform switch tuning
    C.Modify the Symmetrix bin
    D.Install a Fibre Channel switch
    Answer: D

    11. A customer is implementing an SRDF/S solution using switched Fibre Channel. The throughput is lower than expected on the SRDF link.
    What is the most likely cause of the problem?
    A.Incorrect SRDF listener port settings
    B.Incorrect BB_Credit setting on the switches
    C.More than 8 RA groups assigned to the RAFs
    D.Not enough cache allocated to the SRDF devices
    Answer: B

    12. You are reconfiguring a DMX with Solutions Enabler SYMCLI. There are several volumes that are already mapped but not in use. The customer wants to convert them to metavolumes.
    What do you do to perform this task?
    A.Unmap the devices, set the volumes to not ready, create the metavolumes, and map them
    B.Create a device group, unmap the devices, create the metavolumes, and map the metavolumes
    C.Set the volumes to not ready, unmap the devices, create the metavolumes, and mount the volumes
    D.Create a device group, set volumes to not ready, unmap the devices, create metavolumes, and map the metavolumes
    Answer: D

    13. Your DMX configuration is approaching 16,000 volumes. In defining the Volume Access Control Database (VCMDB), your 96-cylinder volume is configured as a type-5 VCM database. Once implemented, an old host cannot access the new VCM for device masking commands through SYMCLI. You have verified that the zoning information is correct and can see the VCM using syminq.
    What is the next step for troubleshooting?
    A.Verify that the old host is at the latest recommended version of Solutions Enabler using symcli
    B.Initialize the VCMDB using:
    symmaskdb sid nnn init file MyInitBackup vcmdb_type 5
    C.Initialize the VCMDB to a type-4 using:
    symmaskdb sid nnn init file MyInitBackup vcmdb_type 4
    D.Backup and restore the VCMDB using:
    Answer: A

    14. A customer wants to implement an Exchange 2003 "hot backup" solution on a DMX with TimeFinder Exchange Integration Module (TEIM) software. The Exchange Servers are running on Windows 2003.
    When using TEIM which volume layout is required?
    A.Configure the data files and logs on the same volume
    B.Separate storage groups must always reside on separate volumes
    C.Data stores must be stored on the same Symmetrix logical volume
    D.The checkpoint file for a storage group and the databases that make up that storage group must be located on different volumes
    Answer: B

    15. A customer has had security issues in the past. To resolve them, firewalls were set up between network segments within and external to his data center environment. You are configuring the communication between the Replication Manager server and the administration console(s).
    Which port must be allowed to pass through the firewalls to facilitate administration?
    A.6753
    B.8080
    C.65431
    D.65432
    Answer: D

    16. A customer is having performance issues with an Oracle database. Workload Analyzer data was collected and reviewed. The EMC IE found a number of busy volumes.
    What course of action could the IE use to further identify these busy volumes?
    A.Run Symperf
    B.Ask for an IOSTAT output report
    C.Generate a Symmetrix workload analysis report
    D.Generate reports using the syminq and symdev commands
    Answer: D

    17. After doing a BCV split and mount on a Window’s backup host, the customer determines the data on the BCV copy is inconsistent and missing files. The customer’s script is using the SUI utility symntctl.
    Which command should be used to help prevent the inconsistent BCV?
    A.umask
    B.flush
    C.umount
    D.deport
    Answer: B

    18. A customer has an application that runs on a SQL Server 2000 database, and the information is stored on a DMX. The customer wants to make daily, local backups of the database using TSIM.
    What action does the tsimsnap backup command perform to create this local copy?
    A.Establishes standard and BCV volumes
    B.Keeps track of the database backup history
    C.Requests the operator perform a SQL Server snapshot
    D.Flushes the filesystems used by the database and performs the BCV split
    Answer: D

    19. A customer wants to implement a remote site replication via SRDF.
    Which tool is used to calculate the number of tracks to be replicated?
    A.EMC DRU
    B.EMC TimeFinder
    C.EMC Change Tracker
    D.EMC Symmetrix Optimizer
    Answer: C

    20. A customer needs to implement a multi-hop SRDF/AR configuration.
    How does the bandwidth between Symmetrix arrays impact the potential amount of data lost in case of failure?
    A.Less bandwidth means more cache required
    B.Less bandwidth means longer SRDF/AR cycles
    C.More bandwidth means longer SRDF/AR cycles
    D.More bandwidth means potential data inconsistency in case of failure
    Answer: B

    免费下载e20-845题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-845题库，其全名为：(Business Continuity Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-845题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-845模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-845题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-845学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 e20-845考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-845学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-845考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-845是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-845考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-845考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-845试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-845考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • E20-840题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-840考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-840
    问题数量:120 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-03
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    免费E20-840题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-840
    Title : Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    1. Your customer wants to add custom defined fields to the ControlCenter database for Asset tracking. How are these fields defined?
    A. Via an ODBC connection to the database
    B. XML import into the ControlCenter Repository
    C. Directly into the console by right clicking the object
    D. Use the Administration section on the StorageScope interface
    Answer: B

    2. ControlCenter and StorageScope FLR are deployed at a site. The customer wants to be alerted when his SQL Server Data and Log files are nearly full? Which solution would you recommend?
    A. Enable the ControlCenter SQL Server Tablespace Alert
    B. Enable Microsoft SQL Server Enterprise Manager to generate an alert
    C. Setup a threshold policy in StorageScopeFLR to monitor Database File Thresholds and generate an alert
    D. Enable the ControlCenter Logical Volume Percent Free alert on all the drives on which the SQL Server instance is installed
    Answer: C

    3. Your customer just purchased ControlCenter and installed Symmetrix Manager and the StorageScope licenses. They say they are missing the capability to assign devices to their hosts. What do you recommend?
    A. Purchase the SAN Manager license
    B. Open a Software Case, this must function
    C. Purchase the Storage Management license
    D. Purchase the Automated Resource Manager license
    Answer: A

    4. A customer currently has ControlCenter installed at a data center in Chicago. They want to bring another data center in Los Angeles into this infrastructure that does not have ControlCenter installed there.
    You have determined that an additional Store will be needed to handle the additional hosts, arrays and switches in Los Angeles. You have tested the network and the average latency between the two sites is 27ms.
    Where should the new ControlCenter Store host be placed?
    A. Chicago data center on the same subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
    B. Chicago data center on a different subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
    C. Los Angeles data center on the same subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
    D. Los Angeles data center on a different subnet as the existing ControlCenter Repository server
    Answer: A

    5. A Customer wants ControlCenter to monitor the percent of free space on all the Logical Volumes on his Windows servers. The monitoring frequency should be 15 min. A Critical alert should trigger only if the drive has been at 70% full for at least one hour. A Fatal alert should trigger at 90% full as soon as possible. What solution would you suggest?
    A. One alert definition with two Management Policies
    B. One alert definition with appropriate evaluation conditions
    C. One alert definition with a Management Policy that will meet the customer requirement
    D. Two alert definitions: One monitoring for the Critical condition and the other for the Fatal Condition
    Answer: B

    6. Navisphere is used in a datacenter to monitor and manage two (2) CLARiiON CX500s. The datacenter manager wants to set the security level for his storage administrator, so that she can make changes to the array configuration and allocate storage as needed. However, there are other activities, such as creating or deleting users that the manager does not want the administrator to perform. Within Navisphere, which role should be assigned to this user?
    A. Monitor
    B. Manager
    C. Operator
    D. Administrator
    Answer: B

    7. A customer wants to do provisioning as well as capacity and performance reporting in an open systems SAN environment. The customer has HDS and EMC storage. Which product sets are used to design a solution?
    A. Planning and Provisioning Package
    B. Symmetrix Package, Monitoring and Reporting Package
    C. Symmetrix Manager, SAN Manager, Performance Manager, StorageScope
    D. Symmetrix Manager, SAN Manager, HDS Manager, Performance Manager, StorageScope
    Answer: C

    8. A customer is using BMC Patrol Enterprise Manager as their alert notification application and they want to integrate ControlCenter into the framework. Some of the equipment in the environment supports SNMP V2, which is the customer’s preference. This equipment is currently being monitored by ControlCenter, but alerts are being forwarded by direct SNMP traps. What would cause you to continue to send direct SNMP traps to BMC PEM for this equipment?
    A. Not all ControlCenter alerts can be forwarded by the Gateway Agent
    B. Gateway Agent can only be installed on a Windows server
    C. ControlCenter Integration Gateway Agent supports only SNMP V1 traps
    D. Firewall between the ControlCenter managed objects and the ControlCenter server
    Answer: C

    9. A customer is preparing to upgrade their version of ControlCenter to the next major release. The end of the quarter is approaching, and the account team would like to have the upgrade performed as soon as possible. What must be done to perform the upgrade in accordance with EMC Policies and Procedures?
    A. Submit a new qualifier and supporting documents to the SVC for approval
    B. Just submit a CCA and proceed with the implementation after gaining approval
    C. Since this is only an upgrade, the activity can be performed with no additional documentation
    D. The architect can update the account’s PDG with the new software version information and then the installation can proceed
    Answer: A

    10. All the Celerras in a Data Center are currently monitored via ControlCenter. The customer has expressed a concern that some Celerra events seen in Celerra Manager are displayed in ControlCenter while some are not displayed in ControlCenter even though all the ControlCenter Celerra Alerts are enabled.
    Which solution would you recommend after you have identified the specific events which do not appear in ControlCenter?
    A. Setup the Control Station and the ControlCenter Server as SNMP Trap destinations
    B. Configure the Celerra Control Station to generate an SNMP trap when the events occur
    C. Modify the Celerra MIB to include the trap definitions for these events and compile it on the ControlCenter Server and the Control Station
    D. Modify the Celerra MIB to include the trap definitions for these events on the Control Station and setup the Control Station as an SNMP trap destination
    Answer: B

    11. Which two [2] documents are required for a ControlCenter review and validation by the Solutions Validation Center (SVC)?
    A. Scope
    B. Qualifier
    C. Statement of Work (SOW)
    D. Work Breakdown Structure
    Answer: BC

    12. You are editing a StorageScope Layout Report for information and need to organize the information by the customer’s business units and projects. Each business unit has measurable projects. The customer’s business units have exclusive access to their respective arrays. Projects have exclusive use of servers.
    Which approach will allow the StorageScope layouts to produce reporting on storage utilization by business units and projects?
    A. Modify the Arrays Basic Layout to include filtering on the Groups field
    B. Create Groups via the Console that represent the Projects and then copy and paste the appropriate arrays to each group
    C. Create Groups via the Console that represent the Business Units and then copy and paste the appropriate arrays to each group
    D. Create Hierarchical Groups via the Console that represent the Business Units and Projects and then copy and paste the appropriate hosts to each group
    Answer: D

    13. A customer is managing 50 CLARiiON CX600s and 10 DMX1000Ps via ControlCenter. They would like to be alerted when any Customer Replaceable Unit on the CX600s fail. The alert must be received in ControlCenter. Which solution would you recommend?
    A. Setup the CLARiiON Agent host as an SNMP trap designation on all the CX600s
    B. Ensure that the ControlCenter "Storage Array Fault" alert is enabled for the CLARiiON Agent
    C. Setup Navisphere Event Monitor in a Distributed deployment to monitor all Critical Array Faults for all CX600s
    D. Setup Navisphere Event Monitor in a Centralized deployment to monitor all Critical Array Faults for all CX600s
    Answer: B

    14. Your customer would like to integrate their Symmetrix and CLARiiON storage arrays into ControlCenter. They want to test the functions of the Storage Management Initiative Standards. What is the recommended installation to discover the arrays?
    A. Solution Enabler CIMOM Provider and the SMI-S Agent
    B. Storage Agent for Symmetrix and CLARiiON on an Agent Host
    C. SMI-S Agent and Solution Enabler from the Console on an Agent Host
    D. Storage Agent for Symmetrix, SDM Agent and Storage Agent for CLARiiON
    Answer: A

    15. A customer has Cisco MDS series switches, and is using ControlCenter in their environment. To facilitate support, he would like the switches to dial-home to EMC in the event of an error. What is mandatory to ensure that this feature works properly?
    A. Dedicated 56Kb modem, externally connected to each MDS switch
    B. Dedicated phone connected to the telephone port of the service processor
    C. OnAlert/ConnectEMC configured to enable dial-home capabilities via ControlCenter
    D. Cisco MDS do not have dial-home capabilities. These switches only support email home notification
    Answer: C

    16. A Customer intends to deploy StorageScope FLR in their environment. Which factor helps to determine the backend database (Oracle or SQL Server) to be used?
    A. Number of Databases, Exchange Servers and Files
    B. Number of Databases, Exchange Servers and Hosts
    C. Number of Databases, Hosts, Storage Arrays and NAS File Servers
    D. Number of Databases, Exchange Servers, Hosts and NAS File Servers
    Answer: A

    17. While considering the type and protection of the storage for the ControlCenter database, your customer is looking for a recommendation. Which option is the recommended best practice for database storage?
    A. Use RAID-1 for the ControlCenter database
    B. Use RAID-5 for the ControlCenter database
    C. Use software based mirroring for the ControlCenter database
    D. Due to the daily database exports unprotected disk is recommended
    Answer: A

    18. The customer has an environment consisting of:
    10 Symmetrix Arrays
    20 CLARiiON Arrays
    4 Cisco Switches
    125 Open systems Hosts
    ControlCenter Master and Host Agents are deployed to all 125 open system hosts.
    ControlCenter StorageScope File Level Reporter (FLR) Agents are deployed to all 125 open systems hosts.
    Which tools should be used to generate a report showing the correlation of disk utilization to directory utilization?
    A. Custom StorageScope Layout with filtering
    B. Excel spreadsheet with the StorageScope FLR API
    C. Custom report program using the StorageScope API and the StorageScope FLR API
    D. Basic StorageScope Layout with the StorageScope API and the StorageScope FLR API
    Answer: C

    19. ControlCenter uses all of the following criteria for agent load balancing, except?
    A. Agent Version
    B. Deployment Order
    C. Agent Server CPU Load
    D. Distance to Managed Object
    Answer: B

    20. A customer has integrated four (4) new DMX storage arrays into their ControlCenter environment for monitoring and management purposes. The total number of arrays being managed is now six (6) and the Storage Agent for Symmetrix is deployed on the ControlCenter server.
    Ever since the new arrays have been under ControlCenter management, there have been large gaps in the WLA data for the arrays. They have an immediate need to analyze current DMX performance for their internal customers.
    You have been tasked to review their current ControlCenter environment and recommend a solution which may resolve the issue and allow for them to perform their analysis.
    What would be your initial recommendation?
    A. Distribute additional Storage Agents for Symmetrix
    B. Upgrade the memory on all servers attached to the DMX arrays
    C. Upgrade the driver and firmware of the HBA’s installed on the ControlCenter server
    D. Upgrade the ControlCenter environment to the latest ControlCenter release and service pack
    Answer: A

    免费下载E20-840题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的Technology Foundations认证 E20-840题库，其全名为：(Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-840题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-840模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的E20-840题库PDF下载链接

    EMC E20-840学习指南

    Technology Foundations认证 E20-840考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-840学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-840考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-840是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-840考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-840考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师E20-840试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-840考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • E20-001题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-001考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-001
    问题数量:283 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-27
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Storage Technology Foundations (Information Storage and Mgmt)

    免费E20-001题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-001
    Title : EMC Storage Technology Foundations

    1. What is the role of the back-end in an intelligent disk system?
    A. To communicate between Tag RAM and data store
    B. To communicate between the host and the storage system
    C. To move data between the host and the array cache
    D. To move data between the array cache and the disks
    Answer: C

    2. Which statement describes the iSCSI protocol?
    A. ATA over SCSI
    B. IP over SCSI
    C. SCSI over ATA
    D. SCSI over IP
    Answer: D

    3. What is monitored as part of a SAN health check?
    A. Disk status
    B. Fan-in/Fan-out ratio
    C. ISL utilization
    D. Port status change
    Answer: D

    4. Which failure does RAID technology guard against?
    A. Disk failure
    B. Host Bus Adapter failures
    C. Host failures
    D. Switch failure
    Answer: C

    5. Why would you implement an iSCSI solution?
    A. All storage arrays supply GigE ports
    B. Block storage over IP is much faster than FC
    C. iSCSI HBAs are inexpensive
    D. Leverages existing IP network infrastructure
    Answer: B

    6. What is the role of a bus?
    A. Control point for all host activities and resources
    B. Device for storing data
    C. High speed interconnect between CPU, memory, and disks
    D. Temporary location for commands and data
    Answer: C

    7. A LUN is created from three disks using one partition from each of the disks. When this LUN is presented to the host, how does the host view this LUN?
    A. As three separate partitions
    B. As a striped partition
    C. As a concatenated partition
    D. As a single disk
    Answer: C

    8. What are the five core elements of a data center infrastructure?
    A. Applications, Databases, JBOD, Networks, Storage Arrays
    B. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, DAS, NAS
    C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, Networks, Storage Arrays
    D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, SAN, JBOD
    Answer: B

    9. What is the name of the drive sub-assembly containing the platters and read/write heads?
    A. ATA
    B. SATA
    C. HDA
    D. IDE
    Answer: B

    10. Many FCAL nodes are attempting to simultaneously send I/O to a storage array. How is control of the loop determined?
    A. Hub bypass circuit
    B. Hub name service
    C. Node that owns the token
    D. Node with the highest priority
    Answer: D

    11. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems?
    A. EMC MirrorView/A
    B. EMC SnapView
    C. EMC SRDF/AR
    D. EMC TimeFinder
    Answer: A

    12. Click the Exhibit button.
    Sorry, Missing the Exhibit
    Based on the exhibit, which type of backup topology is shown?
    A. Direct
    B. LAN
    C. SAN
    D. Mixed
    Answer: D

    13. In an EMC Symmetrix array, which component provides physical connectivity to hosts?
    A. Back-end adapter
    B. Cache
    C. Front-end adapter
    D. Storage Processor
    Answer: A

    14. Which EMC Celerra component allows management of volumes and filesystems?
    A. Control Station
    B. Data Mover
    C. Disk Array Enclosure
    D. Storage Processor
    Answer: A

    15. What is the correct order of operations for array-based synchronous replication?
    A. Write is received by the source array from host/server
    B. Remote array sends acknowledgement to the source array
    C. Source array signals write complete to host/server
    D. Write is transmitted by source array to the remote array
    A. A, B, C, D
    B. A, D, B, C
    C. C, D, B, A
    D. D, C, B, A
    Answer: A

    16. Which statement accurately describes parity-based RAID?
    A. Parity is read each time a read is performed
    B. Parity is updated only when a full stripe is read
    C. Parity is updated each time a write is performed
    D. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe
    Answer: C

    17. Which local replication technology does EMC TimeFinder/Mirror implement?
    A. Copy on First Access
    B. Copy on First Write
    C. Full Volume Mirroring
    D. Pointer based
    Answer: C

    18. Which two mechanisms can be used to address threats of user privilege elevation?
    A. Access Control Lists (ACLs) and access control to storage objects
    B. Access control to storage objects and storage access monitoring
    C. User authentication and Information Rights Management (IRM)
    D. User authentication and user authorization
    Answer: D

    19. What is a server capacity management task?
    A. Establishing user quotas
    B. Installing multi-path software
    C. Maintaining user logins
    D. Monitoring faults and events
    Answer: C

    20. Which management task eliminates single points of failure in a data center?
    A. Availability
    B. Capacity
    C. Performance
    D. Security
    Answer: B

    免费下载E20-001题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 E20-001题库，其全名为：(Storage Technology Foundations (Information Storage and Mgmt)). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载E20-001题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费E20-001模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的E20-001题库PDF下载链接

    EMC E20-001学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 E20-001考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 E20-001学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试E20-001考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 E20-001是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的E20-001考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他E20-001考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师E20-001试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加E20-001考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • e20-820题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-820考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-820
    问题数量:154 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-08-03
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    免费e20-820题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-820
    Title : CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    1. Which tool will allow you to best determine a Windows server’s performance?
    A. diskpart
    B. navseccli
    C. perfmon
    D. sar
    Answer: C

    2. A customer wishes to make a local copy of its 512 GB production LUN for a single test. The copy will be mounted to the production UNIX host. The customer requires a solution with minimal disruption to its application.
    What do you recommend?
    A. Create a snapshot of the production LUN, and start a session. Add the session to the production host’s storage group. Change the volume label and mount.
    B. Clone the production LUN. Fracture the clone. Add the clone to the production host’s storage group. Change the volume label and mount.
    C. Take the production LUN offline. Perform a full SAN Copy. Add the destination LUN to the production host’s storage group, and restart the application.
    D. Use an Incremental SAN Copy session on the production LUN. Add the destination LUN to the production host’s storage group. Mount the volume.
    Answer: B

    3. Which EMC products require a post-sales solution review by the EMC Solutions Validation Center (SVC)?
    A. EDL Replication, Open Replicator, and EmailXtender
    B. EDL Replication, SRDF/A, and RepliStor
    C. SRDF/A, Open Migrator, and MirrorView/A
    D. SRDF/A, RecoverPoint, and MirrorView/A
    Answer: D

    4. A SAN Copy session (full) has been started to replicate a single 2 TB LUN in a customer environment:
    Source LUN is offline
    Source array and target array are connected to the same FC switch
    A single 400 MB/s SAN Copy connection has been established
    There is no contention on the link
    The SP utilization of the source and target arrays is less than 30%
    After one hour, 1.3 TB has been replicated. What action might be taken to increase the replication rate?
    A. Decrease the data compression value on the FC switch
    B. Increase the SAN Copy throttle value
    C. Increase the write cache value on the target array
    D. No action necessary: replication rate is close to maximum
    Answer: D

    5. The ET Wizard can be used to model which products?
    A. MirrorView, Open Replicator, Replication Manager
    B. MirrorView, RecoverPoint, SRDF
    C. MirrorView, RepliStor, SRDF
    D. SAN Copy, SRDF, MirrorView
    Answer: B

    6. You have been asked to produce a local replication design for the company. What are the basic types of information you need to gather before beginning your task?
    A. Inventory of hardware infrastructure, service level agreements, number of users
    B. Operational flow and objectives of each department
    C. Performance and workloads, availability, consistency
    D. Process for bringing applications online, fault detection resources, network infrastructure
    Answer: C

    7. A user fractures a clone and presents it to a secondary host. However, the data on the clone LUN does not contain the same data as the production host at the time of the fracture. What is the most likely cause?
    A. The application and file system buffers on the production host were not flushed prior to the fracture.
    B. The appropriate file system repair utilities on the production host were not performed prior to the fracture.
    C. The Consistent Fracture feature was not enabled on the source LUN.
    D. The file system on the production host must be unmounted prior to the fracture.
    Answer: A

    8. A customer’s clone restore script has lines that perform the following operations:
    1. Check that the clone is fractured
    2. Flush the clone buffers
    3. Flush the Source LUN buffers
    4. Take the Source LUN offline
    5. Start the reverse synchronization
    6. Bring the Source LUN online
    What would you add to the script to ensure more reliable operation?
    A. A delay between steps 2 and 3 to allow the clone buffers to complete flushing
    B. A delay between steps 3 and 4 to allow the Source LUN buffers to complete flushing
    C. A delay between steps 4 and 5 to allow the Source LUN to transition to the offline state
    D. A delay between steps 5 and 6 to allow the reverse synchronization to start
    Answer: D

    9. A customer keeps data on a 512 GB 4+4 RAID 1/0 LUN. The customer will use a SnapView snapshot for backup purposes, and keep the session active for the full 24-hour period between backups. You investigate its environment and determine the following:
    The application generates random 4 KB I/Os, with a read/write ratio of 3:1
    The average seek distance is 35 GB
    The application generates a throughput of 200 IOPS for 10 hours per day and is idle for the remaining 14 hours
    You need to estimate the size of the Reserved LUN Pool and the write throughput of the Reserved LUN Pool.
    What is the best initial estimate?
    A. 120 GB, with fifty 64 KB writes/s and one hundred 8 KB writes/s
    B. 150 GB, with one hundred 128 KB writes/s
    C. 200 GB, with two hundred 4 KB writes/s and fifty 64 KB writes/s
    D. 512 GB, with two hundred fifty 4 KB writes/s
    Answer: A

    10. There are several decisions that need to be made when designing a Business Continuity Solution. What is one of the decision requirements for a good solution?
    A. All decisions should be calculated and derived from customer data
    B. Create specific device lists for modeling tools
    C. Industry standards and algorithms should be closely adhered to
    D. Provide customer with a standardized approach to Business Continuity
    Answer: A

    11. The ET Tool validates which component of a Business Continuance design?
    A. Cache utilization
    B. Data change activity
    C. Link latency
    D. SP utilization
    Answer: B

    12. You are designing a CLARiiON disaster recovery environment for your customer. You want to accurately model and calculate the following based on the customer’s input data and/or EMC Performance Data:
    Bandwidth requirements (physical links)
    Performance impacts at the logical volume level
    Recovery point objectives
    Which tool would best help you to accomplish this?
    A. ET Tool
    B. LOR Tool
    C. Navisphere Analyzer
    D. NSD
    Answer: A

    13. The customer starts a SnapView session of a production database LUN and log LUN. The snapshot is immediately activated and presented to a secondary host for testing purposes. The production host experiences significantly higher write response times, but the response time does improve over time. What is the most likely cause?
    A. A high number of disk crossings occur if the RLP LUNs are less than 10% of the size of the source LUN.
    B. The COFW activity is generally highest at the start of a session.
    C. The random nature of a database causes the host write I/Os to be smaller at the start of a session.
    D. The write cache rehit ratio is always smaller at the start of a session.
    Answer: B

    14. Your customer is using SnapView to provide backup images (snaps and clones) of various host data across five CX3-40s. Recently they upgraded the CLARiiONs to FLARE release 26. Previously their scripts took care of the SnapView snap sessions and clone re-syncing, and ran without incident in the SnapView environment. Those same scripts now fail, with errors that the customer is saying are related to permissions.
    What is the cause of the failure?
    A. The agent.config file does not exist in the Navisphere Agent directory.
    B. The agent.config file does not exist in the Navisphere CLI directory.
    C. The Navisphere security file does not exist in the user home directory.
    D. The usernames and hostnames do not appear in the CLARiiON SP privileged user list.
    Answer: C

    15. A company wants to use SAN Copy over a 10 Mb/s IP connection over a Brocade 7500 FC/IP router. The SAN Copy I/O size will be 512 KB and the round-trip latency is 0.425 second. After completing the design, it is determined that they will have bandwidth problems. They cannot increase the bandwidth.
    What can be done to improve the data transfer between two sites?
    A. Change the SAN Copy buffer size to 2048 blocks
    B. Enable the Fast Write feature on the Brocade device
    C. Set the number of default sessions to 4
    D. Set the Throttle value to 10 for all SAN Copy sessions
    Answer: B

    16. What are the requirements that must be met when collecting data that will be used as input for the ET Tool in an environment that is evaluating for MirrorView/A?
    A. I/O to the LUNs should be stopped until the collecting of the data has started.
    B. The update cycle must be an integer multiple of the collection interval.
    C. The update cycle should be set for a 10-minute interval at maximum.
    D. The update cycle should be set for a five-minute interval at maximum.
    Answer: B

    17. Which tool will let you best determine disk utilization of a UNIX server?
    A. diskpar
    B. iostat
    C. navcli
    D. netstat
    Answer: B

    18. Your customer has come to you with concerns. They have increased their replication bandwidth from OC-3 to OC-12 and wonder what will happen to their recovery point objectives. What would your response be?
    A. RPO will compensate and balance RTO
    B. RPO will decrease
    C. RPO will increase
    D. Time objective will remain consistent
    Answer: B

    19. A customer with a CX3-20f has recently started using SnapView snapshots and immediately noticed an increase in write response times on the LUNs being snapped.
    What should be the long-term write response time impact of the active snapshot sessions?
    A. The impact will decrease over time.
    B. The impact will fluctuate, decrease then increase over time.
    C. The impact will increase over time.
    D. The impact will stay the same over time.
    Answer: A

    20. A customer has a new cost saving policy in place and as a result will have data center personnel present from 8 A.M. to 5 P.M. Backups will be performed during these hours. Backups currently take six hours to complete. You explain the benefit of SnapView in backup environments.
    The customer wants a solution that will allow:
    Its backup to be run during work hours
    Minimal performance impact on its application
    Recovery from corruption of application data in a short time (preferably under one hour)
    You recommend the use of a clone, but the customer wants to use a snapshot. You explain the performance implications, but the customer wants to see numerical proof. The database LUN sees random 8 KB I/Os at a rate of 500 IOPS, with the read/write ratio at 4:1.
    What calculations on the following do you present as validation?
    Copy On First Write (COFW)
    Reserved LUN Pool (RLP)
    A. COFW during the day will cost 100 random 8 KB reads/s of the production LUN, and 200 64 KB writes/s and 100 8 KB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the production LUN and RLP.
    B. COFW during the day will cost 100 random 64 KB reads/s of the production LUN, and 100 64 KB writes/s and 200 8 KB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the Production LUN and RLP.
    C. COFW during the day will cost one random 8 KB read of the production LUN and two random 8 KB writes to the RLP for each 8 KB of data written to the database. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the production LUN and RLP.
    D. COFW during the day will cost 100 sequential 64 KB writes/s of the production LUN and 200 64 KB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional random reads of the production LUN and RLP.
    Answer: B

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    Technology Foundations认证 e20-820考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-820学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-820考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-820是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-820考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-820考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-820试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-820考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

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  • e20-825题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-825考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-825
    问题数量:120 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-08-31
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage-SAN Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    免费e20-825题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-825
    Title : Storage Area Network (SAN) Expert Exam for Technology Archs

    1. A company has many low end servers that need to access SAN attached storage. The company does not want to invest any additional money in the servers to make this happen. Each server will have one NIC card that will be used for iSCSI. The customer wants as high availability as possible. Their current SAN infrastructure consists of all MDS directors, with multiple FC and IP cards in each. What feature can be used to make their environment as fault tolerant as possible?
    A. VRRP
    B. Host based multipathing
    C. Ethernet adapter teaming
    D. Zone with SANvergence Manager
    Answer: A

    2. A company is interested in migrating four standalone M-series switches to a full mesh fabric topology. The total combined throughput of the servers and storage is 6GB/sec, including local and ISL traffic. Using EMC recommendations, how much combined throughput should you design the ISLs to handle?
    A. 3GB/s
    B. 4GB/s
    C. 5GB/s
    D. 6GB/s
    Answer: A

    3. A customer has an existing SAN using a single ED-24000B director and they need to expand their SAN capacity. They also want to increase their SAN availability as part of the upgrade. Which approach provides the highest availability?
    A. Add a second ED-24000B as an independent fabric
    B. Replace the ED-24000B with an ED-140M director with 32 port cards
    C. Replace the ED-24000B with a MDS 9509 director configured with four 32 port modules
    D. Add two additional DS-32B switches and configure their fabric into a core-edge topology with the ED-24000B at the core
    Answer: A

    4. Your customer is maintaining a small SAN, built of four DS-32B2 switches in full mesh topology and a CLARiiON CX500, with VisualSAN. Over the weekend they want to connect several HP-UX servers to the SAN. For ease of management and time savings, they want to create the zones beforehand and activate them on the weekend. What are the necessary steps to do this?
    A. Customer needs to upgrade to ControlCenter
    B. Create zones, edit zoneset directly on the switch with native tools
    C. Create zones, edit zoneset and save it in the Active Zoneset folder
    D. Create zones, edit zoneset and save it in the Inactive Zoning Library folder
    Answer: B

    5. A company just completed an implementation of 800 iSCSI attached nodes. After some time, performance problems such as device discovery, and change notification service have started to effect the environment. Which service can be implemented to increase the robustness of the environment?
    A. DNS
    B. iSNS
    C. LDAP
    D. iSCSI
    Answer: B

    6. You are designing a connectivity tier fabric for a company with eight switches on the host and storage tiers, and four switches in the connectivity tier. Where should you locate the principle switch?
    A. Host tier
    B. Backup tier
    C. Storage tier
    D. Connectivity tier
    Answer: D

    7. A company wants the most cost effective way to add 100 new hosts. Each host requires approximately 15MBps. All servers must be dual attached. They currently have all MDS 9509 directors, and could add line cards at your recommendation. What solution should you recommend?
    A. Add 2 IP cards with 4 ports each and use iSCSI to connect into the SAN
    B. Add 2 IP cards with 8 ports each and use iSCSI to connect into the SAN
    C. Add 2 fiber channel cards with 32 ports each and fiber attach all the hosts
    D. Add 8 fiber channel cards with 32 ports each and fiber attach all the hosts
    Answer: B

    8. A customer is designing an in-band management framework for the M-series switch fabric. What protocol is used within the framework?
    A. FCIP
    B. IPFC
    C. OSPF
    D. TCP/IP
    Answer: B

    9. A customer, using MDS-series switches, would like to exceed the recommended oversubscription on the ports. What feature can be utilized to benefit performance on these ports?
    A. IVR
    B. FSPF
    C. FCID address caching
    D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
    Answer: D

    10. Click the Exhibit button.
    Your customer has the CLARiiON environment in the diagram. They want to improve security.
    What should you recommend?
    A. Each switch in each fabric should have the same domain ID
    B. The zoning policy should be single-HBA or single-initiator zoning
    C. The zoning policy should be port zoning on Fabric A and Fabric B
    D. The switches with the lowest WWNs always be located at the center of the fabric
    Answer: B

    11. The customer manages their SAN environment with ControlCenter. They have installed FCC Agent on Host A and Host B. They have installed the NAS Agent on Host B. Host A was down for one day, during which they lost NAS monitoring and switch management. Why did this happen?
    A. SNMP traps on both agents are set to READ/ ONLY
    B. Both Agents are communicating over the same SNMP Port
    C. SNMP traps on both agents are set to the wrong IP Address
    D. FCC Agent does not initiate a fail over to the Host B, and NAS Agent was inactive
    Answer: B

    12. The redraw time of the alerts window pane in ControlCenter takes several minutes to complete. What do you recommend to fix this problem?
    A. Edit the Alert Definition
    B. Edit the Alert Templates
    C. Edit the Alert Data Retention
    D. Edit the Alert Data Collection Policies
    Answer: C

    13. Click the Exhibit button.
    As shown in the diagram, two environments are linked via dual FCIP links. The customer is using Cisco gear as the router and wants to maintain as stateful a connection as possible.
    Which protocol would you recommend to run between the routers at either side of the environment?
    A. RIP
    B. VRRP
    C. HSRP
    D. VLAN Tagging
    Answer: C

    14. Why are MDS-series port channels not compatible with B-series switches?
    A. B-series FSPF settings are incompatible with MDS-series
    B. Persistent FCIDs cannot be translated across the Port Channel
    C. B-series will reject MDS-series Virtual Channel flow control and negotiate a standards based buffer-to-buffer flow control
    D. MDS-series will reject B-series Virtual Channel flow control and negotiate a standards based buffer-to-buffer flow control
    Answer: D

    15. A customer has deployed two separate data centers located 100 km apart. Each site has two MDS 9509 configured with 2 VSANs in each director. The directors have IPS modules with FCIP configured between the MDS directors using their existing IP network between sites. NO EISLs currently exist. They want to implement a backup solution where all backups are done to CDL units located at the remote data center location.
    What is the best solution for this requirement?
    A. Configure EISL between locations and create a new tape VSAN containing CDL ports and all host ports
    B. Configure new EISLs between locations, merge ALL existing fabrics between sites and connect CDL ports to new fabrics
    C. Create a new tape VSAN at each location containing CDL ports and implement IVR for host access to tape resources at the remote location
    D. Configure EISL between locations and create a new tape VSAN containing all CDL ports and implement IVR for backup hosts to access tape resources at local the location
    Answer: C

    16. Click the Exhibit button.
    In the event log of the M-series switches in the diagram you see the following messages:
    Unrelieved Fibre Channel traffic congestion on an ISL, no reroute done.
    End of Unrelieved Fibre Channel traffic congestion on an ISL.
    Unrelieved Fibre Channel traffic congestion on an ISL, no reroute done.
    End of Unrelieved Fibre Channel traffic congestion on an ISL.
    What is the reason for this?
    A. Trunking is enabled
    B. Trunking is not enabled
    C. There is no performance issue
    D. There are not enough ISL connections
    Answer: D

    17. Port Security is enabled at the customer site on all ports of the MDS-series switch. Which statement is true?
    A. All intrusion attempts are reported when accessing switches in a fabric using FTP
    B. Login requests via Telnet are restricted from unauthorized Fibre Channel devices accessed in a fabric
    C. Login requests from unauthorized Fibre Channel devices (Nx ports) and switches (xE ports) are rejected
    D. Login requests from unauthorized users to the fabric are rejected from the network security management in the switch
    Answer: C

    18. A customer has two separate SAN environments, located 5 km apart, with both DMX and CLARiiON storage. They have a Windows 2000 application that is currently connected to a CX600. They plan to deploy a second server at the remote site and implement a MSCS clustered environment for this application. The solution needs to be disaster tolerant. What would they do as part of this implementation?
    A. Implement MirrorView to replicate data between sites
    B. Implement EMC OpenReplicator to replicate data between sites
    C. Move the server’s data to DMX and use SRDF to replicate data between sites
    D. Implement EISLs between sites to provide remote access to the CLARiiONvolumes
    Answer: C

    19. Your customer is asking if fabric latency is related to different application I/O patterns when using 3 hops in a B-series Fabric. What do you tell the customer?
    A. Only optic latency is relevant to different I/O patterns
    B. Hop and speed do not depend on different I/O patterns
    C. Hop and optical latency count is dependant on different I/O patterns
    D. Hop, speed, and optic latency do not depend on different I/O patterns
    Answer: D

    20. What is a valid FCID for a node connected to a MDS-series director in a fabric consisting of MDS-series, B-series and M-series switches?
    A. 0×330000
    B. 0×441111
    C. 0×552222
    D. 0×663333
    Answer: D

    免费下载e20-825题库Demo

    Examsoon提供最新的EMC Certification认证 e20-825题库，其全名为：(Networked Storage-SAN Expert Exam for Technology Architects). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载e20-825题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费e20-825模拟测试题的下载链接

    免费的e20-825题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-825学习指南

    EMC Certification认证 e20-825考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-825学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-825考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-825是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的e20-825考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他e20-825考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-825试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-825考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

    售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

    No Comments

  • E20-830题库demo免费下载

    Filed under EMC
    Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-830考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-830
    问题数量:120 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-02
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage–NAS Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    免费E20-830题库Demo赏析

    　
    　
    Exam : EMC E20-830
    Title : Networked Storage–NAS Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    1. A customer requires Celerra RDF and they already have a Celerra NAS running on a CLARiiON array. You have to prepare the design for the implementation. Where should the Celerra Control volumes reside after the DMX is added?
    A. They should be mirrored to the DMX
    B. They should remain on the CLARiiON
    C. They should be re-installed on the DMX
    D. They should be re-created on the control station hard drive
    Answer: C

    2. A customer asks you to design an NDMP2D solution on an existing NAS device. Two shelves of disks remain unused, one is ATA RAID-5 and the other is Fibre Channel RAID-5. What is the EMC best practice for configuring cartridge filesystems?
    A. Reconfigure both shelves to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge file system using LUNs from both of the disk shelves
    B. Reconfigure the ATA shelf to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge filesystem using LUNs from each of the disk shelves
    C. Reconfigure both shelves to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge filesystem using LUNs from only one of the disk shelves
    D. Reconfigure the ATA shelf to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge filesystem using LUNs from only one of the disk shelves
    Answer: D

    3. What are two [2] workload characteristics that can affect performance measurement results?
    A. Memory vs. Processor
    B. Single vs. Multi threaded
    C. Full-Duplex vs. Half-Duplex
    D. Random vs. Sequential access
    Answer: BD

    4. You are designing the implementation of three new NS704G Celerras which will be used for CIFS only. All of the Celerras will be in the same Active Directory domain. Two Celerras will be used for production data and one Celerra will be used for development and testing. What is the EMC best practice for configuring Usermapper?
    A. Configure each Celerra with its own Usermapper server on server_2
    B. Enable Usermapper on server_2 of one Celerra and run a secondary User mapper on server_2 of the other two
    C. Let the two production Celerras run Usermapper on server_2 in the default configuration and configure the development and testing Celerra with a secondary UserMapper service on server_2
    D. Set up a default Usermapper server on server_2 of one production Celerra and a secondary Usermapper server server_2 of the other production Celerra, then set up another default Usermapper on the development and testing Celerra
    Answer: B

    5. You have an existing Celerra CIFS server in Active Directory with CIFS only filesystems. Internal Usermapper is in use. You now wish to support multi-protocol NFS access to the same filesystems. The new NFS users will authenticate with NIS but they will not exist in Active Directory. Which two [2] actions must you take to accommodate this new requirement?
    A. Authentication mode needs to be set to UNIX
    B. Authentication mode needs to be set to NATIVE
    C. Use NTMIGRATE to import all existing NIS UID/GIDs into Active Directory
    D. NIS UID/GID’s should be within the existing range of the Usermapper UID / GID
    E. NIS UID/GID’s should be outside the existing range of the Usermapper UID / GID
    Answer: BE

    6. What is the minimum stripe size that can be used when creating volumes on a CLARiiON to be used with HighRoad?
    A. 8K
    B. 16K
    C. 32K
    D. 64K
    Answer: C

    7. A small photo lab is currently storing its image files for print production across several file servers. It wants to consolidate its storage with a solution that is easy to deploy and is low cost. Its Chief Financial Officer insists on an ROI of four to six years. The lab has an immediate need for 9 TB of storage. Its projected growth is 3 TB a year. Which Celerra model do you recommend?
    A. NSX
    B. NS501
    C. NS700
    D. NS704G
    Answer: C

    8. You have a customer who is purchasing a new EMC NAS solution with the following requirements:
    No DFS (Distributed File System)
    Three 10 TB file shares
    Which NAS platform do you propose?
    A. NS502
    B. NS602
    C. NS704G
    D. CNS-14 with five 514 Data Movers
    Answer: C

    9. A customer is having issues meeting its application data backup window. More importantly, restores are taking longer than its SLA allows. Your customer also wants to have the data safely out of the filesystem for DR purposes. The customer would like to fix this problem and spend as little money as possible. It has unassigned ATA capacity and an NS704. What can you do?
    A. Use server_archive to speed up the backups and restores
    B. Put the SavVol for this filesystem on the unused ATA storage and use SnapSure
    C. Assign the ATA storage to the Celerra and have the application use Backup to Disk with the unused ATA capacity
    D. Add tape capacity to the TLU and ensure that paxWriteBuff and paxReadBuff NDMP parameters are set to 65535
    Answer: C

    10. You are planning for replication between two NS502G Celerras. One is located in New York, one is in Los Angeles. What must be considered for replication to be successfully established?
    A. Time on both Celerras must be synchronized
    B. Both sites must point to the same DNS servers
    C. Each Control Station must be in the same domain
    D. The rdf passphrase on each Celerra cannot be the same
    Answer: A

    11. A customer has a Network Appliance filer with 1 TB using Legato NDMP to backup. It currently backups nightly and moves the tapes off site weekly because it needs the tapes locally for the fastest restore possible. The tape library has two connections with four tape drives allocated for NDMP. There are unused tapes and connections to the tape library. Your customer just installed an NS704G with 12 TB fiber and 16 TB of ATA. It allocated two Data Movers. What is the best solution to add the NS704G to its backup environment?
    A. Connect to the tape library with the two new Data Movers, and allocate one tape drive to each. Backup the environment with NDMP.
    B. Use Celerra fs_copy to copy the file systems to the unused Data Mover utilizing RAID-3 ATA and backup the environment over the network.
    C. Connect the unused Data Mover to the tape library and assign tapes. Backup the Network Appliance across the network to tape using 3-Way NDMP.
    D. Connect the unused Data Mover to the tape library and assign tapes. Create a Celerra VTLU using ATA RAID-3 to backup all NAS data, and clone tapes for offsite.
    Answer: D

    12. An existing Celerra Customer utilizes its Data Movers with its UNIX NFS environment. It currently updates the password and group files nightly on the Data Movers. They would like to add a new group of Windows’ users to the Data Movers. Which architecture should be proposed?
    A. Use the Usermapper for the Windows’ users
    B. Use Usermapper with a VDM for the Windows’ users
    C. Use the NTMigrate tools to create files and merge them into existing password and group files
    D. Use Usermapper for the Windows users and groups, dump the database and merge the files nightly
    Answer: C

    13. What is one of the considerations for the configuration of the remote target site when designing a unidirectional SRDF solution for the highest level of availability?
    A. The target site Celerra requires only RDF target Data Movers for the primary Data Movers on the source site
    B. The target site Celerra requires only RDF target Data Movers for the standby Data Movers on the source site
    C. The target site Celerra requires RDF target Data Movers for the primary and associated standby Data Movers on the source site
    D. The target site Celerra Data Movers can each assume the identities of two source Data Movers and so only half the number of Data Movers are required in the target site
    Answer: B

    14. You are reviewing an IP replication design because the customer states that permissions on the target side are wrong. Both the source and target Celerras are using internal Usermapper in the default configuration. What is the EMC best practice to alleviate this issue?
    A. Set "NT" security mode on both Celerras
    B. Turn off user authentication on the target Celerra
    C. Manually configure Usermapper on the target Celerra
    D. Make sure that the source and target CIFS servers are in the same domain
    Answer: C

    15. A customer has an NS704G/DMX with production file systems mounted on server_2. The standy Data Mover is server_3, and server_4 and 5 are unused. There are currently 96 mirrored hyper volumes presented with BCVs. Currently 50% of Celerra volumes are in use. Which solution would best minimize the impact of backups on production data servers.
    A. Configure NDMP 3 way backup with tape drives connected to an unused Data Mover
    B. Take a TimeFinder/FS snap, mount it to an unused Data Mover, and backup the snap
    C. Take a SnapSure checkpoint, mount it to an unused Data Mover, and backup the checkpoint
    D. Use fs_copy incrementals to create a separate copy of the file system, mount the file system to an unused Data Mover, and back up the copy
    Answer: B

    16. You just created an iSCSI LUN on the Celerra and successfully presented it to a Windows 2003 host. In order to optimize performance, which two [2] actions should you take?
    A. Use Diskpart to align the partitions
    B. Convert the LUN to a Dynamic Disk
    C. Create a filesystem block size divisible by 8K
    D. Create a filesystem block size divisible by 32K
    Answer: AC

    17. Click the Exhibit button.
    The exhibit shows a partial output from the status of a current IP Replication session. What configuration changes do you need to make in order to conform to EMC Best Practices?
    A. No changes are required
    B. Source Filesystem ID must be less then destination Filesystem ID
    C. Flow control is recommended to always be set to active on both sides
    D. Extend the SavVol because available SavVol space should always be greater then 10% of the total SavVol space
    Answer: A

    18. What is the effect of using SnapSure to create a checkpoint on an unmounted read-only file system?
    A. The checkpoint SavVol will always be empty
    B. The checkpoint will become a Null checkpoint
    C. The checkpoint can not be restored to the production file system
    D. The checkpoint creation will fail because the file system needs to be mounted
    Answer: D

    19. A customer has a multi-protocol environment consisting of mostly Windows users with a few UNIX users. They want to perform Usermapping within Active Directory. What additional action must be taken after the customer extends the Active Directory Schema?
    A. Modify param files
    B. Update Windows registry
    C. Run NTMigrate procedure
    D. Import NIS database to Usermapper
    Answer: A

    20. You have configured and tested IP Replication between two NS700’s in a datacenter in New York City as a proof-of-concept. You are satisfied with the results and now want to put the secondary NS into production in a DR site in London, England. Once the secondary NS has been relocated and put back on the network, the secondary NS is visible from the network and all shares are accessible. However, IP Replication fails to start. What must be done to resolve the problem?
    A. The passphrase for IP Replication must be reset since it has been relocated
    B. The Data Movers need to be rejoined to the domain so Replication can be re-established
    C. You did not reset the time or time-zone on the London control station and now the two control stations are out of sync
    D. You aborted replication prior to shipping the secondary NS to the DR site, but forgot to take a checkpoint of the file system after aborting
    Answer: C

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