• Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-670考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-670
    问题数量:126 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-20
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage-CAS Installat’n/Troubleshooting Specialst

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    Exam : EMC E20-670
    Title : Networked Storage-CAS Installat’n/Troubleshooting
    Specialst

    1. How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 8
    D. 16
    Answer: C

    2. Which two objects are stored as a single BLOB?
    A. Two documents containing the same data
    B. Two JPG pictures written at the same time
    C. Two MP3 songs of the same size
    D. Two X-Rays with the same filename
    Answer: A

    3. What allows EmailXtender to archive to EMC Centera?
    A. CUA
    B. DiskXtender for Windows
    C. EmailXtract
    D. Multiple Access Nodes
    Answer: B

    4. In EmailXtender, what are container files?
    A. Archived mail header information
    B. Encrypted files holding mail by file size
    C. Files that are compressed at 10:1
    D. Monthly archived message files
    Answer: D

    5. What are the hardware components in a Gen4 cube?
    1. Two internal Lan-48 port cube switches
    2. Front-pluggable drive
    3. Configuration with 8, 16, 24, or 32 nodes
    4. Configuration with 4, 8, 12, or 16 nodes
    5. Two internal Network Cube Switches (NCS)
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 2, 3, and 5
    C. 1, 2, and 4
    D. 2, 4, and 5
    Answer: D

    6. In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
    A. Data link
    B. Network
    C. Network interface
    D. Transport
    Answer: B

    7. What does the purge function in DiskExtender accomplish?
    A. Permanently deletes files from an extended drive
    B. Reclaims space from deleted files
    C. Removes file data from extended drives and leaves a file tag
    D. Removes files from media
    Answer: C

    8. Your customer wants to implement a disaster recovery solution involving a second EMC Centera at a remote location.
    How could this be easily accomplished using EMC Centera features?
    A. Back up the primary EMC Centera to tape and restore to EMC Centera at the remote site
    B. Configure bidirectional replication between both EMC Centeras
    C. Configure the application to write the same data to both EMC Centeras
    D. Configure virtual pools and access profiles on both EMC Centeras
    Answer: B

    9. Which component of EMC DiskXtender for Windows is responsible for moving data to extended storage?
    A. Administrative
    B. EmailXtender
    C. File System Manager
    D. MediaStor
    Answer: C

    10. How does an application locate objects on an EMC Centera?
    A. By the object’s filename
    B. Keeps a copy of each C-Clip ID
    C. Keeps a copy of every BLOB’s CA
    D. Searches each storage node sequentially
    Answer: B

    11. What is CAS?
    A. Archived storage accessed by filename
    B. High-performance transactional data storage
    C. Multiprotocol access storage
    D. Storage of fixed content data
    Answer: D

    12. How many targets can DiskXtender for Windows manage?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 8
    D. 16
    Answer: B

    13. Which targets does EmailXtender natively archive to?
    A. EMC Centera
    B. Network-attached storage
    C. NTFS disks
    D. Optical libraries
    Answer: C

    14. Which EMC Centera security model conforms to Securities and Exchange Comission regulations?
    A. Basic
    B. CE+
    C. CPP
    D. Governance Edition
    Answer: B

    15. What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
    A. Application, session, transport, and physical
    B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
    C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
    D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
    Answer: B

    16. Your customer wants to automatically archive files from his EMC Celerra to EMC Centera. Which additional hardware is required?
    A. CUA using CIFS
    B. CUA using NFS
    C. None. The Celerra API is integrated with EMC Centera
    D. Rainfinity FMA
    Answer: D

    17. What is the minimum recommended number of nodes that can be configured with the access role in a Gen4 cube?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: B

    18. Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
    A. Application
    B. Data link
    C. Network
    D. Transport
    Answer: A

    19. Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
    A. 20 or 21
    B. 22
    C. 25
    D. 321
    Answer: C

    20. Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
    A. Bus
    B. Mesh
    C. Ring
    D. Star
    Answer: D

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-815考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-815
    问题数量:143 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-14
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Business Continuity Expert Exam for Technology Architects

    免费E20-815题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-815
    Title : Symmetrix Business Continuity Expert Technology Architects

    1. A customer has a requirement to simplify management of their Microsoft Exchange database replication. You have been assigned the task of meeting this requirement.
    In creating application sets and jobs, which configuration considerations should you be aware of for Replication Manager?
    A. Storage groups for Exchange data and logs can be on the same volumes but have to reside on different hypervolumes
    B. Storage groups for Exchange data and logs cannot be on the same volumes but have to reside on different hypervolumes
    C. System path and transaction log path must always exist in different locations due to the checkpoint file
    D. System path and transaction log path must always exist in the same location due to the checkpoint file
    Answer: D

    2. Click the Exhibit button.
    The exhibit represents a solution you have architected for a customer. You then configured Replication Manager to create automated BCV copies of the database. After configuring the application set and job, the job simulation is failing.
    What is the most likely cause for the failure?
    A. Database and Transaction Logs must reside on the same mount point
    B. System Path and Transaction Logs must reside on the same mount point
    C. Too few spindles are allocated to the System Path
    D. Too few spindles are allocated to the Transaction Logs
    Answer: B

    3. You are designing a Replication Manager solution to provide VSS backups of Exchange 2007 with TimeFinder/Clone. What should you take into consideration?
    A. A maximum of five databases per storage group is supported
    B. Circular logging must be disabled
    C. Transaction Log and database paths must be the same
    D. Transaction Log and system path cannot be on the same device
    Answer: B

    4. Click the Exhibit button.
    You are migrating a customer’s Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from DAS to SAN. The LUNs shown in the exhibit are presented to the server. You must select six LUNs to use for databases and logs.
    According to EMC best practice, which Symmetrix DMX devices should you select?
    A. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 055
    B. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 05D
    C. 005, 00D, 015, 02F, 055, and 05D
    D. 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D
    Answer: D

    5. A customer wants to use Replication Manager to create application consistent BCV copies of their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server running Cluster Continuous Replication (CCR). They would like to create the replica from the passive copy of the CCR storage group, regardless of which physical node in the cluster currently hosts that role.
    What is your recommendation?
    A. Replication Manager can replicate only the active copy of a CCR cluster
    B. Use combination replication to replicate the CCR storage group
    C. Use node-based replication of the CCR storage group
    D. Use role-based replication of the CCR storage group
    Answer: D

    6. A customer is implementing Replication Manager 5.1.3 to create BCV replicas against a Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. The Exchange server has two sets of STD devices: one set running the production LUNs and the other acting as a local continuous replication destination.
    The customer would like an application consistent BCV replica of the production LUN with minimal impact on the production LUN. How should the Replication Manager job be configured?
    A. A file system job should be configured against the local continuous replication target LUN(s)
    B. A file system job should be configured against the production Exchange LUN(s)
    C. An Exchange job should be configured against the local continuous replication target LUN(s)
    D. An Exchange job should be configured against the production Exchange LUN(s)
    Answer: D

    7. A customer is consolidating 2,000 seats from Lotus Notes to one Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. They want to provision each Exchange storage group allowing for 100 "Very Heavy" profile users. Mailbox quotas are set at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item recovery is set to the defaults and a full pass of database maintenance completes nightly. Content indexing is enabled and the customer has no need for offline maintenance.
    What is the minimum LUN size that can be allocated for each Exchange Storage Group’s database, while meeting the customer’s needs?
    A. 25 GB
    B. 113 GB
    C. 119 GB
    D. 133 GB
    Answer: C

    8. Click the Exhibit button.
    A customer is planning to consolidate 2,000 "Average" profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%.
    Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected spindles needed to support the performance profile of the Exchange transaction logs?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 6
    Answer: A

    9. A customer is migrating from Microsoft Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2007. The customer is trying to estimate the user load profile that fits their environment for the purposes of sizing the disk subsystem.
    Which condition could cause the customer to underestimate the IOPS required for their environment?
    A. Database maintenance
    B. Deleted items retention
    C. Mobile device users
    D. Nested subfolders with many thousands of items
    Answer: C

    10. A customer has noticed that performance is degraded on one of their Microsoft Exchange servers after migrating all Exchange 2003 servers to Exchange 2007. Analysis indicated that the system is performing two reads for every transaction.
    What is the most probable cause?
    A. Block size is too small
    B. Cache is disabled
    C. Sector misalignment
    D. Stripe size is too small
    Answer: C

    11. A customer noticed that their RDF links between Site A and Site B are suspended. You have been contacted by the customer to resolve database corruption and inconsistencies. Their SRDF setup includes standard, R1BCV, R2, and RBCV volumes.
    You verify, in the application event logs, that TimeFinder/EIM was synchronizing before the link suspension. How do you provide the customer with consistent data?
    A. Restore from tape to the RBCV to the R2
    B. Restore from the RBCV to the R2
    C. Restore the STD device from either the R2 or the RBCV
    D. Restore the STD device from R1BCV
    Answer: B

    12. A customer wants to implement a consolidated solution for an Oracle 11g database environment. During your discussions, which issues need to be highlighted and reviewed before moving forward with any recommendations?
    A. 1. ASM device groups properly sized
    2. Disk groups appropriately set up
    3. Volume groups appropriately sized
    B. 1. Device groups appropriately set up
    2. Oracle files laid out efficiently on the array
    3. Volume groups appropriately sized
    C. 1. OFA compliance
    2. Device groups appropriately set up
    3. File systems properly sized
    D. 1. OFA compliance
    2. Oracle files laid out efficiently on the array
    3. Volume groups appropriately sized
    Answer: D

    13. Click the Exhibit button.
    You are migrating a customer’s Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from DAS to SAN. The LUNs shown in the exhibit are presented to the server. You must select six LUNs to use for databases and logs.
    According to EMC best practice, which Symmetrix DMX devices should you select?
    A. 00D, 005, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D
    B. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 055
    C. 005, 015, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D
    D. 015, 01D, 005, 02F, 055, and 05D
    Answer: B

    14. A customer is migrating from Microsoft Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2007. They want to provision each mailbox server with 2,000 users, allowing for 100 "heavy" profile users per Exchange storage group. In designing an SLA for the customer, you determine that the customer requires the use of recovery storage groups for disaster recovery purposes.
    Which consideration must be made when architecting this solution?
    A. A maximum of 50 production storage groups can be hosted per Exchange Server
    B. A maximum of four production storage groups can be hosted per Exchange Server
    C. Exchange 2007 Enterprise Edition is required
    D. Server hosting the recovery storage group must be in a separate Active Directory forest from the source storage groups
    Answer: C

    15. A customer has asked you to design a TimeFinder/EIM architecture. You have been given the following information:
    1 Two sites are approximately 300 kilometers apart
    2 Round trip latency between sites is 50 ms
    3 Current network utilization is 80%
    The customer is concerned about recoverability and local application performance. Other applications reside on the source DMX hosting Microsoft Exchange and it is currently nearing capacity. The customer has cost concerns and is looking for you to design the best solution with their existing resources.
    Which solution meets the customer’s requirements for performance, recoverability, and cost?
    A. SRDF/A using a production R1, R2, and RBCV as well as R1 BCV, R2, and a BRBCV copy
    B. SRDF/A using standard R1, remote R2, and RBCV
    C. SRDF/S using a standard volume, a local R1 BCV, R2, and BRBCV
    D. SRDF/S using standard R1, remote R2, and RBCV
    Answer: B

    16. Click the Exhibit button.
    A customer is planning to consolidate 2,000 "Average" profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%.
    Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected spindles needed to support the Exchange database?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8
    Answer: A

    17. A customer is configuring SRDF/S. Their current configuration does not provide local recoverability. The local DMX is nearing capacity. They have a requirement for a solution that will simplify the restore process. In addition, the customer wants you to take their tape backup solution into consideration.
    How should you address the customer’s requirement?
    A. Create a solution that will utilize the STD, R1BCV to R2, BRBCV layout. Recover from BRBCV.
    B. Create a solution that will utilize the R1 to R2/R1BCV to R2, and BRBCV layout. Recover from R2.
    C. Create a solution that will utilize the R1, R2 to RBCV layout. Recover from R2.
    D. Create a solution that will utilize the R1, R2 to RBCV layout. Recover from RBCV.
    Answer: D

    18. Click the Exhibit button.
    A customer is planning to consolidate 4,000 "Very Heavy" profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%.
    Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 5 protected spindles needed to support the performance profile of the Exchange transaction logs?
    A. 8
    B. 12
    C. 16
    D. 20
    Answer: B

    19. A customer is consolidating 2,000 seats from Lotus Notes to one Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. They want to provision each Exchange storage group allowing for 100 "Heavy" profile users. Mailbox quotas are set at 500 MB per mailbox.
    Deleted item recovery is set to the defaults and a full pass of database maintenance takes 48 hours to complete. Content indexing is enabled and the customer has no need for offline maintenance.
    What is the minimum LUN size that can be allocated for each Exchange Storage Group’s database, while meeting the customer’s needs?
    A. 25 GB
    B. 95 GB
    C. 100 GB
    D. 125 GB
    Answer: C

    20. When performing an incremental synchronization of an Oracle database environment, what are the key objects that need to be replicated to ensure a restartable instance on the target host?
    A. Archive Log Files and Data Files
    B. Control File and Oracle System Files
    C. Control File and Redo Logs
    D. Data Files and Control File
    Answer: C

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    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心,而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下,它的E20-815考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度,最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识,不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才,其他E20-815考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的,所以要找一些好的资源才行。

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    售后服务第一!我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功,必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务,只有客户满意了,才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨;

  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-651考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-651
    问题数量:128 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-12
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage-SAB Installation and Troubleshooting Exam

    免费e20-651题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-651
    Title : Storage Area Network (SAN) Installation and Troubleshooting

    1. Your customer is using EMC Solutions Enabler 5.1. What is the recommended volume masking to discover HBAs in this environment?
    A. symmask discover hba
    B. symmask discover hbas
    C. symmaskd discover hba
    D. symmaskdb discover hbas
    Answer: A

    2. Which command will reconfigure PowerPath?
    A. powermt config
    B. powermt set mode
    C. powermt set policy
    D. powermt set config
    Answer: A

    3. Which M-Series switch also supports Arbitrated Loop logins?
    A. ED64M
    B. ED1032
    C. DS16M2
    D. DS24M2
    Answer: D

    4. How many ports are there in a M-Series ASIC?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 8
    Answer: D

    5. What addressing mode is used in Windows and Sun with Fibre Channel?
    A. LUN Addressing
    B. Logical Addressing
    C. Volume Set Addressing
    D. Peripheral Device Addressing
    Answer: D

    6. Which command will show the version of PowerPath being run?
    A. powermt version
    B. powermt show version
    C. powermt display version
    D. powermt check_registration
    Answer: A

    7. Which tools are used in the management of the Connectrix Switch?
    A. Serial Connect, SSH, Embedded Web Server, Web Tools and Connectrix Manager.
    B. Telnet, Embedded Web Server, Web Tools Serial Connect and Connectrix Manager.
    C. Embedded Web Server, Parallel Connect, SSH, Web Tools and Connectrix Manager.
    D. Parallel Connect, Telnet, Embedded Web Server, Web Tools and Connectrix Manager.
    Answer: B

    8. Which package must be installed on the Connectrix Service Processor so that SAN Manager can perform zoning on McData switches?
    A. SAN Manager
    B. Internet Explorer
    C. FibreZoneBridge
    D. Solutions Enabler
    Answer: C

    9. Which Protocol is characterized by distance, connectivity and speed?
    A. SCSI
    B. Fibre
    C. Escon
    D. Bus & Tag
    Answer: B

    10. Which four [4] client host types can be used with the Java based support on Connectrix Manager?
    A. AIX
    B. Sun
    C. Linux
    D. HP-UX
    E. TRU64
    F. Windows
    G. Mainframe
    Answer: ABDF

    11. How many Connectrix Directors/switches can be managed with a single Service Processor with Connectrix Manager?
    A. 4
    B. 28
    C. 38
    D. 48
    Answer: D

    12. Which [2] of the current Connectrix MDS products support the IPS Line Module?
    A. 9120
    B. 9140
    C. 9216
    D. 9509
    Answer: CD

    13. Click the Exhibit button.
    What do the lights on the WWN bezel of the Connectrix 12000B indicate?
    A. power LED / status LED
    B. activity LED / power LED
    C. wwn LED / cabinet temperature
    D. fan speed indicator / temp indicator
    Answer: A

    14. Click the Exhibit button.
    What command would you use to display this information?
    A. show vaan
    B. show zone
    C. show interface
    D. show fcdomain
    Answer: D

    15. How many Zone Sets can be Activated per Fabric using SAN Manager?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: A

    16. What happens when the SAN Manager host discovers the SAN?
    A. New records are added to the VCMDB.
    B. Directly connected switches are rebooted.
    C. Zoning information is added to FibreZone database.
    D. New Production Hosts are connected to the switch.
    Answer: C

    17. Which command displays the current firmware version in a B-Series device?
    A. version
    B. cfgshow
    C. vershow
    D. shoversion
    Answer: A

    18. Select three [3] Connectrix MDS EXEC commands.
    A. Show
    B. Config
    C. Cfgdisable
    D. Traceroute
    E. Configshow
    F. Switchshow
    Answer: ABD

    19. Which two [2] tasks must be performed on the CLARiiON before configuring PowerPath?
    A. Select PowerPath
    B. Create Storage groups
    C. Configure Volume Logix
    D. Set the failover mode to 1
    E. Configure Array Compath
    Answer: DE

    20. What is the Default ip address for a DS-16b2?
    A. none
    B. 10.255.0.1
    C. 10.77.77.77
    D. 192.168.1.1
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-661考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-661
    问题数量:140 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-13
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage-NAS Installation and Troubleshooting Exam

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    Exam : EMC E20-661
    Title : Network Attached Storage (NAS) Installation/Troubleshooting

    1. What is one method of finding the WWN’s on a Data Mover?
    A. server_log
    B. server_route
    C. server_ifconfig
    D. server_sysstat
    Answer: A

    2. Which command is used on a Sun host to obtain the Ethernet address of a network adapter?
    A. eth0
    B. NDD
    C. ifconfig
    D. ipconfig
    Answer: C

    3. Which command is used to test dialhome?
    A. ch_dd
    B. ch_test
    C. ch_dialin_enable
    D. callhome.phone_calls
    Answer: B

    4. In which directory is the osmlog found?
    A. /var/log
    B. /nas/log
    C. /nas/var/log
    D. /nas/server/log
    Answer: B

    5. A host has the following IP address and default gateway. Select the subnet mask that will allow the host to access remote networks.
    IP address: 10.6.230.196
    default gateway: 10.6.128.1
    A. 255.255.128.0
    B. 255.255.192.0
    C. 255.255.224.0
    D. 255.255.255.0
    Answer: A

    6. What is NDMP?
    A. A System Management program
    B. A Backup Protocol
    C. An Operation system
    D. A Virus checking system
    Answer: B

    7. Which command is used to view the current default route on a Data Mover?
    A. server_route
    B. server_ifconfig
    C. server_sysstat
    D. server_ipconfig
    Answer: A

    8. How many Celerra/CLARiiON LUNs are created in a 8 + 1 RAID 5 configuration?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8
    Answer: A

    9. What does an Amber LED flashing 4 times a second indicate about an NS series Data Mover?
    A. Has a fault
    B. Still booting
    C. Running POST
    D. Running BIOS activity
    Answer: B

    10. Which layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) does the ping utility test?
    A. Physical and Data Link
    B. Network and Transport
    C. Physical, Data Link, and Network
    D. Data Link, Network and Transport
    Answer: C

    11. Which command is used on a UNIX host to display all of the processes that are running?
    A. ps
    B. tail
    C. grep
    D. egrep
    Answer: A

    12. You have been engaged to replace an obsolete Celerra Data Mover with a new model. Which web site provides current information on the procedure?
    A. C4
    B. NSG
    C. Primus
    D. NAS Support
    Answer: D

    13. Click the Exhibit button.
    During an NS series installation, when presented with the option to configure "LAN networking". Which configuration will selecting the "Yes" (default) or "No" option allow you to perform?
    A. "Yes" to configure the Control Station and Data Mover internal network
    B. "No" to allow the internal network to be configured by the installation script
    C. "Yes" to configure the Control Station’s network connection to the customer’s network
    D. "Yes" to configure the Control Station’s internal network for communication with Data Mover(s)
    Answer: C

    14. Your customer is unable to access Data Mover file systems by hostname, but is able to access them by IP address from HostA. HostB can access the Data Mover by hostname and IP address. What is the cause?
    A. lmhosts is empty
    B. Duplicate IP address
    C. Bad entry in HostA’s hosts file
    D. DNS reverse lookup entry is missing
    Answer: C

    15. Which protocol is designed to synchronize computer clocks over a network?
    A. FTP
    B. NTP
    C. CIFS
    D. DHCP
    Answer: B

    16. What are the destination addresses of devices that can receive packets?
    A. Multicast, Simulcast and Unicast
    B. Broadcast, Multicast and Unicast
    C. Anycast, Broadcast and Multicast
    D. Broadcast, Groupcast and Unicast
    Answer: B

    17. A new level of EMCNAS code is now available. Where do you obtain the release notes?
    A. C4 Web Site
    B. CCA Web Site
    C. www.emc.com
    D. Celerra Web Site
    Answer: D

    18. What is the minimum disk configuration for a Celerra/CLARiiON implementation?
    A. 2 disks and 1 hot spare
    B. 4 disks and 1 hot spare
    C. 5 disks and 1 hot spare
    D. 8 disks and 1 hot spare
    Answer: C

    19. Which tools are used to analyze network packets?
    A. finger, snoop, tcpdump
    B. Netmon, snoop, tracert
    C. Ethereal, Netmon, netstat
    D. snoop, Ethereal, tcpdump
    Answer: D

    20. Which file is edited to configure a kickstart installation?
    A. setup.cfg
    B. install.cfg
    C. ksnas.cfg
    D. kickstart.cfg
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-617考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-617
    问题数量:80 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-11
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:DMX Migration

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    Exam : EMC E20-617
    Title : DMX Migration Exam

    1. How is vault integrity verified?
    A. Customer data management software
    B. Run inlines manually once a day as a PM
    C. Checks are performed every 500 millisecond thru a script
    D. EMC ControlCenter does it automatically and informs the customer if the vault is ok
    Answer: C

    2. Which feature provides performance enhancements for mirrored memory?
    A. Striping
    B. Solutions Enabler
    C. Load Balancing
    D. Aggressive Stripping
    Answer: C

    3. What is the number of vault drive slices for a 2-storage bay, fully configured storage system?
    A. 16
    B. 32
    C. 64
    D. 128
    Answer: D

    4. Click the Exhibit button.
    Where is the DAE highlighted in red physically located?
    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    Answer: B

    5. What is the maximum number of drives that can be configured on a DMX3 direct connect drive loop?
    A. 4
    B. 9
    C. 15
    D. 18
    Answer: C

    6. Where are volume flags for SRDF devices set?
    A. Disk Map
    B. Director Edit
    C. Volume Edit
    D. Volume Request
    Answer: C

    7. What is the maximum time allowed for a single vault in a DMX3?
    A. 3 minutes
    B. 5 minutes
    C. 8 minutes
    D. 10 minutes
    Answer: B

    8. What changes during a block move in SymmWin 5670+?
    A. Attributes
    B. Addresses
    C. Symmetrix volume numbers
    D. Physical location on the disk
    Answer: C

    9. When using a dual-directional configuration in which way does each SRDF group send data?
    A. both directions over shared links
    B. both directions over multiple links
    C. one direction over one set of links
    D. both directions over dedicated links
    Answer: C

    10. What condition will cause the DMX 3 to vault?
    A. Fan module goes out
    B. Memory Failure in slot 10
    C. Front end cards brought offline
    D. Battery time less than 5 minutes
    Answer: D

    11. Where are the larger size cache boards in the memory board slots of a DMX3 located?
    A. Larger size cards go on the left
    B. Larger sizes always go to the right
    C. Larger size cards go in the middle
    D. There is no restriction on where the boards are located
    Answer: B

    12. Which SPSs are connected to XCM0 in a configuration with 8 power supplies?
    A. 1A, 2A, 3A
    B. 1B, 2B, 3B
    C. 1B, 2B, 3B, 4B
    D. 1A, 2A, 3A, 4A
    Answer: D

    13. Click the Exhibit button.
    Which directors are connected to DR-1?
    A. Directors 1 and 16
    B. Directors 2 and 15
    C. Directors 5 and 12
    D. Directors 6 and 11
    Answer: A

    14. Which bit is set on the Edit Directors page for FA link speed Auto Negotiate?
    A. ARB
    B. EAN
    C. VCM
    D. SC3
    Answer: B

    15. How many copies of global memory reside on the vault drives?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 6
    Answer: B

    16. What does mirrored cache protect?
    A. Only reads
    B. Only update writes
    C. All reads and writes
    D. Only partial sector reads
    Answer: C

    17. Where is "striped CKD" set to configure CKD metavolumes?
    A. Edit Volumes
    B. Edit Directors
    C. Volumes Map
    D. Volume Requests
    Answer: D

    18. After adding bay 2, what needs to be done for the Symmetrix DMX3 to recognize the drives?
    A. Set LCC to reflect proper bay
    B. Upgrade LCC card to the new version
    C. Configure thru the impl init screen in symmwin
    D. Nothing; the LCC card will discover new drives automatically
    Answer: A

    19. Which component supplies power to a DAE power supply?
    A. PDP
    B. PDU
    C. PLIM
    D. SPS
    Answer: D

    20. A DMX3 ships with 960 physical drives. How many drive bays are needed?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 8
    D. 16
    Answer: B

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证E20-616考试题库介绍

    考试代号: E20-616
    问题数量:123 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-13
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist

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    Exam : EMC E20-616
    Title : Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist Exam

    1. Which command finds the physical location of the M2 of mirrored dev 64?
    A. A7,C,64
    B. A7,D,64
    C. D2,64,0
    D. E7,D,64
    Answer: B

    2. Click the Exhibit button.
    Identify the DMX-1000 memory boards.
    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    Answer: B

    3. Which link requires the other box serial number to be entered?
    A. FA
    B. RA
    C. RE
    D. RF
    Answer: D

    4. Which functions are performed by the XCM cards?
    A. Communications only
    B. Power monitoring only
    C. Environmental monitoring only
    D. Power monitoring, environmental and communications
    Answer: D

    5. Which command displays adapter information such as speed capability and adapter type?
    A. F0,CE
    B. FC,BKAD
    C. FC,RLES
    D. FC,LINK
    Answer: B

    6. What is the cache slot size on a DMX3?
    A. 16K
    B. 32K
    C. 64K
    D. 128K
    Answer: C

    7. How many power connections are needed for a 2 bay DMX3?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8
    Answer: B

    8. Which condition would prevent a spare from invoking on a failing drive?
    A. RAID 5 only
    B. Parity RAID only
    C. All 4 mirror slots are taken
    D. None; EMC can spare out everything
    Answer: C

    9. How is the Katana number determined on a DMX-800?
    A. IMPL bin file
    B. Enclosure ID
    C. Customer decides
    D. FEBE port connection
    Answer: D

    10. Which 8430/8530 card slots are universal?
    A. 4,B
    B. 5,6
    C. 10,11
    D. 15,16
    Answer: A

    11. Which command lists all the WWNs that are logged into port 1?
    A. A1,,,1
    B. A7,C,1
    C. E7,,,1
    D. 8F,,,1
    Answer: D

    12. After adding Ficon Directors, they do NOT appear as EF in Volumes map. Why?
    A. Ficon Directors are automatically addressed
    B. Ficon Directors must be added to the host screen
    C. Ficon Directors appear as a Split in Volumes map
    D. Ficon Directors must be added at Director Edit screen
    Answer: C

    13. Which Inlines command displays Invoked Hot spares?
    A. A7,HOTS
    B. A7,SPARES
    C. E7,HOTS
    D. E7,SPARES
    Answer: A

    14. Which command is run from the director to see the I/O statistics on a SA or FA host adapter card?
    A. A1,EF
    B. A2,BA
    C. A2,DA
    D. A2,EA
    Answer: B

    15. What is the number of vault drive slices for a 2-storage bay, fully configured storage system?
    A. 16
    B. 32
    C. 64
    D. 128
    Answer: D

    16. Click the Exhibit button.
    Where are the daisy chained disks physically located?
    A. Lower 2A cabinet
    B. Lower 2B cabinet
    C. Upper 2A cabinet
    D. Upper 2B cabinet
    Answer: A

    17. How many disk operations does Parity RAID do for every host write?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 5
    Answer: C

    18. What is the benefit of configuring devices as Dynamic SRDF?
    A. Control SRDF links
    B. Delay D/E to the host
    C. Swap SRDF pairs with host software
    D. Dynamically change R/W status to the host
    Answer: C

    19. What condition will cause the DMX 3 to vault?
    A. Fan module goes out
    B. Memory Failure in slot 10
    C. Front end cards brought offline
    D. Battery time less than 5 minutes
    Answer: D

    20. Which PowerPath load balancing policy is used when I/O requests are distributed to each available path in turn?
    A. Basic Failover
    B. Least I/O
    C. Request
    D. Round Robin
    Answer: D

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-582考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-582
    问题数量:114 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-20
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:storage management specialist exam for storage adminsitrator

    免费e20-582题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-582
    Title : Storage Management Specialist Exam for Storage Admins

    1. Host Managed Objects in the console are created when a Master Agent is installed on the host and started. What is another way that a Host Managed Object can appear in a ControlCenter Console?
    A. Host Agent Installation
    B. Connectivity Discovery
    C. ESN Manager Migration
    D. Assisted Discovery of an array
    Answer: C

    2. Which statement best describes CLARiiON metaLUN expansion?
    A. A metaLUN can be expanded
    B. A metaLUN cannot be expanded
    C. Only a striped metaLUN can be expanded
    D. Only a concatenated metaLUN can be expanded
    Answer: A

    3. Which cluster configuration is supported for the installation of ControlCenter components?
    A. Active/Active dual node
    B. Active/Active single node
    C. Active/Passive dual node
    D. Active/Passive single node
    Answer: C

    4. Which description best describe Data Collection Policies (DCP’s)?
    A. A set of schedules to retrieve data from the Repository
    B. A set of schedules to send SNMP traps to third-party frameworks
    C. A formal set of statements that collects object data via ControlCenter agents
    D. A formal set of statements that manages object data via ControlCenter agents
    Answer: C

    5. You want to change the name of a Storage Group. Which tab of the Navisphere GUI Storage Group Properties window would you use?
    A. LUNs
    B. Disks
    C. Hosts
    D. General
    Answer: D

    6. A portion of your user community is experiencing performance issues every Friday from 3:00 PM to 4:00 PM. You have determined that the servers experiencing this issue are all connected to the same Symmetrix. You determine that WLA is the best tool to analyze the performance on the Symmetrix during this time period. You determine that the only WLA DCP currently enabled is WLA Daily with the default interval.
    What is the best method for determining the cause of this issue?
    A. Utilize the currently enabled WLA Daily Collection with default interval.
    B. In the Console left hand tree under AdministrationData Collection PoliciesPolicy TemplatesWorkload Analyzer ArchiverWLA Analyst create and utilize a new WLA Analyst Collection
    C. In the Console left hand tree under AdministrationData Collection PoliciesPolicy TemplatesStorage Agent for SymmetrixWLA Analyst create and utilize a new WLA Analyst Collection
    D. In the Console left hand tree under AdministrationData Collection PoliciesPolicy TemplatesWorkload Analyzer ArchiverWLA Revolving create and utilize a new WLA Revolving Collection
    Answer: C

    7. Which three [3] items are features of EMC VisualSRM?
    A. Autofixes
    B. Snapshots
    C. Thresholds
    D. Intelligent Actions
    E. Topology Reports
    Answer: BCD

    8. What are the four [4] types of Workload Analyzer-related Data Collection Policies that can be configured and enabled within the ControlCenter Console?
    A. WLA Daily
    B. WLA Analyst
    C. WLA Retention
    D. WLA Revolving
    E. WLA Summary
    F. WLA Scheduled
    Answer: ABCD

    9. Which UNIX host software component is required to support push-install of the VisualSRM Agent?
    A. Perl
    B. Secure Shell (ssh)
    C. Java (version 1.4 or above)
    D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
    Answer: B

    10. Which three [3] types of configuration change does ControlCenter support for a Symmetrix array?
    A. Port flag settings
    B. Change device emulation
    C. Device protection definition
    D. SRDF device type definition
    E. Restrict access to the VCMDB device
    Answer: ACD

    11. Click the Exhibit button.
    On the sample Enterprise Storage window shown, what does the capital "U" icon next to Host "UNIX2" indicate?
    A. Undefined
    B. Unavailable
    C. Unmanaged
    D. Unreachable
    Answer: C

    12. In a Fibre Channel switched environment, which two [2] activities should you perform after completing an SDR operation? Assume that zoning is already configured.
    A. Perform LUN masking
    B. Set the new device state to pot Ready
    C. Set the new device state to "Write Disabled"
    D. Reconfigure the hosts to recognize the new devices that are available for access
    Answer: AD

    13. Which three [3] characteristics describe the ControlCenter Repository?
    A. An embedded SQL database
    B. A repository for historical data
    C. An embedded Oracle database
    D. A single unique component in a ControlCenter Infrastructure
    E. A component which maintains storage configuration data in real time
    Answer: BCD

    14. What are three [3] important performance benefits of CLARiiON cache memory?
    A. Mirroring write cache
    B. Absorbing bursts of writes into cache
    C. Performing forced flushing of the cache
    D. Satisfying user read requests from cache
    E. Merging several writes to the same disk area into a single operation
    Answer: BDE

    15. You are looking at the ControlCenter Console. In the tree on the left hand side of the Console under Hosts you see that your host has been discovered. Which four [4] communication steps have taken place between the ControlCenter tiers to allow your host to be viewed in the Console?
    A. Store forwards information to the Server
    B. Server retrieves information from the Store
    C. Store forwards information to the Repository
    D. Console requests information from the Server
    E. Server retrieves information from the Repository
    F. Master Agent collects data and forwards it to the Store
    Answer: CDEF

    16. Click the Exhibit button.
    You just finished pushing and configuring an Oracle agent. You realize that you are not collecting the level of Oracle information you expect to see. You look at the left hand side of the ControlCenter Console under Policy Templates and find the Oracle Agent Data Collection Policy.
    How do you proceed?
    A. On Oracle Data Collection, right right-click Edit, select Enable, click OK
    B. On Oracle Data Collection, right-click Properties, select Enable, click OK
    C. On Oracle Data Collection, right-click New, name the Collection Policy, click OK
    D. On Oracle Data Collection, right-click Edit, on Action tab select appropriate schedule, click OK
    Answer: C

    17. What are the two [2] main report categories in the StorageScope main screen?
    A. Chargeback
    B. Infrastructure
    C. Billed customers
    D. Allocated storage
    E. Service consumers
    Answer: BE

    18. Which three [3] items can be configured in a VisualSRM Report Job?
    A. List of Reports
    B. Report output format
    C. Threshold trigger levels
    D. Data gathering schedule
    E. Report generation schedule
    Answer: ABE

    19. Primary fileserver usable capacity is extremely low. Which three [3] VisualSRM features allow you to escalate this condition to management?
    A. Task lists
    B. Event logs
    C. Thresholds
    D. Alert Groups
    E. Alert Recipients
    Answer: CDE

    20. Which statement contains the correct Navisphere CLI syntax to display storage group information?
    A. navicli -h SPA -a storagegroup name scoop_1
    B. navicli -h SPA -a storagegroup -list scoop_1
    C. navicli -h SPA storagegroup -list -gname scoop_1
    D. navicli -h SPA -a storagegroup -list -gname scoop_1
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-593考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-593
    问题数量:260 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-15
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam

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    Exam : EMC E20-593
    Title : Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam

    1. Which NetWorker daemon is responsible for the communication between nsrjb and the user interface?
    A.nsrd
    B.nsrexecd
    C.nsrlcpd
    D.nsrmmgd
    Answer: D

    2. Which Celerra NS/CLARiiON tool is used to replicate both data and catalog to a remote site?
    A.SRDF
    B.MirrorView
    C.Celerra SnapSure
    D.Celerra Replicator
    Answer: B

    3. Which NetWorker server daemon is responsible for starting other server and storage node daemons?
    A.nsrd
    B.nsrjobd
    C.nsrmmdbd
    D.nsrmmgd
    Answer: A

    4. In a Windows environment, the NetWorker nsrd process will not start because the resource database is corrupt.
    How can the resource information be recovered?
    A.Remove …nsrindex, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
    B.Remove …nsrres, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
    C.Rename …nsrindex, start nsrd, and run recover
    D.Rename …nsrmm, start nsrd, and run mmrecov
    Answer: B

    5. Which process monitors active recover sessions?
    A.ansrd
    B.nsrd
    C.nsrdbd
    D.nsrexecd
    Answer: A

    6. What manages a NetWorker remote device?
    A.A host outside the NetWorker data zone
    B.A storage node other than the NetWorker server
    C.Another NetWorker server
    D.Remote administration tools
    Answer: B

    7. You are designing a backup schedule for a file system that changes frequently.
    Which NetWorker weekly backup schedule results in the fastest recovery?
    A.Full incr incr incr incr incr incr
    B.Full 1 2 3 4 5 6
    C.Full 4 7 4 7 4 7
    D.Full 8 8 8 8 8 8
    Answer: D

    8. Which NetWorker process initiates negotiation with nsrd during a client-initiated backup?
    A.nsrexecd
    B.nsrindexd
    C.nsrlcpd
    D.nsrmmdbd
    Answer: A

    9. A customer wants to back up two NetWorker clients at the same time every day.
    Which NetWorker resource is configured to include both clients?
    A.Group
    B.Policy
    C.Pool
    D.Schedule
    Answer: A

    10. In an EDL environment, what describes the use of Tape Cloning with the embedded storage node once the data has been backed up to virtual tape?
    A.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to
    physical tape with different barcode
    B.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to
    physical tape with same barcode
    C.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to
    physical tape with different barcode
    D.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to
    physical tape with same barcode
    Answer: A

    11. Which NetWorker process runs on each storage node?
    A.nsrd
    B.nsrexecd
    C.nsrjobd
    D.nsrmmd
    Answer: D

    12. Which NetWorker Management Console server daemon acts as a mini web server and responds to the initial http request from console clients?
    A.dbsrv9
    B.gstd
    C.gsttclsh
    D.nsrd
    Answer: C

    13. Which NetWorker feature allows writing more than one save set at a time?
    A.Advanced file type device
    B.Multiplexing
    C.Open tape format
    D.Remote backup device
    Answer: B

    14. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and PowerSnap, to create and back up copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host. The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%.
    What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed?
    A.30 GB
    B.270 GB
    C.300 GB
    D.330 GB
    Answer: C

    15. A company wants to use a CX3-80 with FLARE 24 as a backup-to-disk destination device. ATA disks are being included as part of the solution.
    Which RAID type should be used?
    A.RAID 0
    B.RAID 3
    C.RAID 5
    D.RAID 1/0
    Answer: C

    16. The status of a volume was prematurely set to full. Which command can be used to change the status of the volume to continue writing to it?
    A.jbedit
    B.mminfo
    C.nsrck
    D.nsrmm
    Answer: D

    17. You noticed that a full level save set is still browsable even after its browse time has expired. What could be the cause?
    A.A clone of the save set exists and has a longer retention period
    B.Incremental save sets depending upon this full save set are still
    browsable
    C.The volume containing the save set is still browsable
    D.There was a read error on the volume containing the save set, giving it
    a "suspect" status
    Answer: B

    18. You are configuring two LUNs with 1.5 TB each in a CLARiiON CX3-80.
    They will be used as backup-to-disk destination devices on a single Windows NetWorker server.
    Which license (option) is needed?
    A.ClientPak
    B.Disk Backup
    C.Storage Node
    D.Virtual Tape Library
    Answer: B

    19. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed up?
    A.mminfo
    B.mmls
    C.nsrinfo
    D.nsrls
    Answer: A

    20. You want to make sure that only NetWorker Server S1 can back up client C1’s data. What do you need to do?
    A.Add C1 to /nsr/res file on the NetWorker Server S1
    B.Add C1 to /nsr/res/clients file on the NetWorker Server S1
    C.Add S1 to /nsr/res/permissions on the client machine C1
    D.Add S1 to /nsr/res/servers file on the client machine C1
    Answer: D

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-570考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-570
    问题数量:113 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-18
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:networked storage cas specialist

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    Exam : EMC E20-570
    Title : Content Addressed Storage (CAS) Specialist Exam for Tech Arc

    1. What is required to store data on the Centera?
    A. Centera API
    B. Centera CLI
    C. CenteraViewer
    D. Centera store software
    Answer: A

    2. How is the Centera connected to the mainframe? 1. ESCON 2. HTTP 3. FICON 4. TCPIP
    A. 1, 2, 3
    B. 1, 2, 4
    C. 1, 3, 4
    D. 2, 3, 4
    Answer: C

    3. Which protection scheme provides maximum useable storage?
    A. CPM
    B. CPP
    C. RAID 4
    D. RAID 1/0
    Answer: B

    4. A customer’s application groups objects into a single container before writing them to the Centera. The customer is using a Centera CE+. Half of the objects should be kept for 3 years, and the remainder for 7 years. Which retention period should the customer set on the container to protect their data?
    A. Do not set the retention period
    B. Set the retention period to 3 years
    C. Set the retention period to 7 years
    D. Set the retention period to 50% 3 year, and 50% 7 year.
    Answer: C

    5. A customer is required to keep dental records for seven years. Which edition of Centera is recommended?
    A. Basic
    B. Compliance
    C. Enhanced basic
    D. Compliance plus
    Answer: B

    6. Which vendors offer gateway software for the Centera?
    A. Microsoft, SAP, Onyx, Dell
    B. IBM, Lotus, FileNet, StorageTek
    C. Legato, EMC, SevenTen, Arkivio, Enigma
    D. Powerfile, Oracle, Mobius, Princeton Softech
    Answer: C

    7. How long does content reside on a CUA before it is written to a Centera?
    A. One minute, depending on system load
    B. Typically 45 minutes or when cache is full
    C. Content is immediately written to the Centera
    D. Content is not written directly to the Centera by the CUA
    Answer: B

    8. Which tool provides the diagnostics screens for the Centera?
    A. CASScript
    B. CenteraCLI
    C. CenteraScript
    D. CenteraViewer
    Answer: D

    9. How would a PC be connected to a CUA if a standard monitor and keyboard were not available onsite?
    A. Via crossover serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 7 1 Even
    B. Via crossover serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 8 1 None
    C. Via straight through serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 7 1 Even
    D. Via straight through serial cable and a terminal emulator configured for 8 1 None
    Answer: B

    10. What is a method for setting retention at the object level?
    A. API
    B. HPP
    C. MOPI
    D. Control Center
    Answer: A

    11. A customer wants to enable application profiles in their environment. Their application does NOT natively support application profile use. How does this windows application specify a path to the application security profile?
    A. Have the application access the root profile on the Centera
    B. Application keeps the security profile as part of the metadata
    C. Create a profile and place it in the ini file of the application; then restart the application
    D. Add the CENTERA_PEA_LOCATION environment variable to the windows application server
    Answer: D

    12. What is the purpose of Centera Verify?
    A. Verify a completed write
    B. Verify Centera ead and write?performance
    C. Verify availability of the Centera for writes, reads and deletes
    D. Verify availability of the target Centera in a replicated environment
    Answer: C

    13. Which troubleshooting utilities are available for the Centera?
    A. Centera Verify and Telnet
    B. Ping and CenteraIPconfig
    C. CenteraPing and CenteraVerify
    D. CenteraViewer and PingCentera
    Answer: C

    14. Click the Exhibit button. From the exhibit, identify component A.
    A. Node
    B. Cube switch
    C. Battery backup
    D. External switch
    Answer: B

    15. A customer with CE+ needs many different retention periods but their application does NOT support a native integration of the API. How does a customer meet this requirement?
    A. Migrate all data to a native application
    B. All data will have an infinite retention period
    C. It is impossible to use retention periods for non-native applications
    D. Use a filesystem-based gateway with different retention periods set on each shared folder
    Answer: D

    16. Which objects are replicated when replication is enabled?
    A. All objects
    B. Only CDFs
    C. Only data BLOBs
    D. Only objects greater than 250K
    Answer: A

    17. Which algorithm is used to help calculate the content address?
    A. API
    B. MD5
    C. MOBI
    D. SHA-1
    Answer: B

    18. How does fixed content differ from backup data?
    A. Fixed content is a subset of backup data
    B. Fixed content has long-term reference value
    C. Backup data sets are a subset of fixed content
    D. Backup data sets can include multiple revisions of a file while Fixed content is WORM data
    Answer: B

    19. Click the Exhibit button. What is the BLOB?
    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    Answer: B

    20. What is required to link two (2) Centera cabinets in one (1) cluster?
    A. ATS
    B. Root switches
    C. Media converter
    D. Gigabit uplink modules
    Answer: D

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-580考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-580
    问题数量:114 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-19
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:storage management specialist exam

    免费e20-580题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-580
    Title : Storage Management Specialist Exam

    1. Which three [3] types of configuration change does ControlCenter support for a Symmetrix array?
    A. Port flag settings
    B. Change device emulation
    C. Device protection definition
    D. SRDF device type definition
    E. Restrict access to the VCMDB device
    Answer: ACD

    2. Which two [2] functions does the ControlCenter Server perform within a ControlCenter configuration?
    A. Processes data requests from the console
    B. Allows you to install sub-agents on managed hosts
    C. Processes ControlCenter Repository maintenance tasks
    D. Manages all communication between the Store and the Repository
    Answer: AB

    3. Which three [3] Microsoft Exchange items can you report on in VisualSRM?
    A. Exchange Personal Folders
    B. Private/Public Email Folders
    C. Individual email message size
    D. Number of Exchange subfolders
    E. Exchange Server consumed storage space
    Answer: BDE

    4. What are the two [2] main report categories in the StorageScope main screen?
    A. Chargeback
    B. Infrastructure
    C. Billed customers
    D. Allocated storage
    E. Service consumers
    Answer: BE

    5. Click the Exhibit button.
    On the Navisphere GUI Disk Summary window shown, what does "Enabled" state indicate about a CLARiiON disk?
    A. Not part of a RAID group
    B. Populated in the storage system
    C. Part of a RAID group and has one or more LUNs bound on it
    D. Part of a RAID group but has no LUNs that have been bound on it
    Answer: C

    6. If devices appear as unknown in VisualSAN, which item describes the probable cause?
    A. The array port has failed
    B. The host agent is not running
    C. SNMP is not enabled on the device
    D. The wrong IP address was entered during configuration
    Answer: C

    7. Which three [3] items are features of EMC VisualSRM?
    A. Autofixes
    B. Snapshots
    C. Thresholds
    D. Intelligent Actions
    E. Topology Reports
    Answer: BCD

    8. Which three [3] items can be configured in a VisualSRM Report Job?
    A. List of Reports
    B. Report output format
    C. Threshold trigger levels
    D. Data gathering schedule
    E. Report generation schedule
    Answer: ABE

    9. In a Fibre Channel switched environment, which two [2] activities should you perform after completing an SDR operation? Assume that zoning is already configured.
    A. Perform LUN masking
    B. Set the new device state to pot Ready
    C. Set the new device state to "Write Disabled"
    D. Reconfigure the hosts to recognize the new devices that are available for access
    Answer: AD

    10. Which UNIX host software component is required to support push-install of the VisualSRM Agent?
    A. Perl
    B. Secure Shell (ssh)
    C. Java (version 1.4 or above)
    D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
    Answer: B

    11. Host Managed Objects in the console are created when a Master Agent is installed on the host and started. What is another way that a Host Managed Object can appear in a ControlCenter Console?
    A. Host Agent Installation
    B. Connectivity Discovery
    C. ESN Manager Migration
    D. Assisted Discovery of an array
    Answer: C

    12. You have a host system that cannot have agents installed. You want to use ControlCenter to create a Host object and associate an unidentified port on a switch with it for zoning and masking. How do you accomplish this task?
    A. In the Topology view, select Action, New <OS type> Host. The Create Host wizard appears with the selected host operating system as context
    B. In the Unidentified Port folder, right click on the port and select "assign port". When the wizard launches, select the host on which the HBA resides
    C. In the Relationship-Host view, right-click the pane and select New <OS type> Host. The Create Host wizard appears with the selected host operating system as context
    D. In the ControlCenter tree panel, right-click the Hosts folder, and select New, <OS type> Host. Enter the host name and select the Unidentified port to associate to this new object
    Answer: D

    13. What are two [2] features of ControlCenter SAN Manager?
    A. Ability to run ControlCenter in a secure fabric for DATA, Cisco and Brocade fabrics
    B. Discovery and monitoring of storage networks and their components to detect and respond to error conditions
    C. Assisted Discovery feature to assist ControlCenter agents that do not perform automated discovery of switches
    D. Ability to manage and zone DATA/Connectrix, Brocade, QLogic and Cisco switches, as well as mixed fabrics, including the ability to import active/inactive zoning elements during discovery
    Answer: BC

    14. You want to use ControlCenter to monitor and manage CLARiiON in your SAN environment. Which two [2] host requirements must be met in order to install your Storage Agent for CX series CLARiiON?
    A. IP connection to the CLARiiON array
    B. In-band connection to the CLARiiON array
    C. NaviCLI installed on host with the Storage Agent for CLARiiON
    D. NaviCLI installed on host with Storage Agent for CLARiiON running in Proxy Mode
    Answer: AC

    15. The CIO wants you to create a Windows 2000 server storage allocation report. Your default server allocation report includes all server types (Windows 2000, AIX, Solaris). How would you create a Windows 2000 only report?
    A. Highlight all Windows 2000 servers and launch StorageScope reports
    B. Run All Host reports with a filtering on the Operation Systems Column that excludes "AIX" servers
    C. Create a filter that contains "Windows 2000" in the Operating System Column in your All Host reports.
    D. From the StorageScope Home Page select the Operating Systems Report, then create a filter on the Operating System Column that equals Windows 2000
    Answer: C

    16. A VisualSRM Database report fails to run. After verifying that the database exists and that the agent is properly installed, which three [3] tasks should you perform?
    A. Check Event log
    B. Check scan policy
    C. Check alert settings
    D. Check ODBC Data Sources
    E. Check VSRM Console login permissions
    Answer: ABD

    17. A User creates a temporary file that causes the free space on a volume to drop below a trigger value. As the storage admin you may want to know about the condition only if the free space remains low for several hours and not when it temporarily dips. How do you implement this through ControlCenter?
    A. Disable Severity level
    B. Disable Alert Definition
    C. Change severity thresholds
    D. Change the efore settings
    Answer: D

    18. Click the Exhibit button.
    On the Alerts View shown, the storage administrator has received several alerts from ControlCenter regarding the power subsystem on Symmetrix 000183600408. Which action was taken?
    A. A note was attached
    B. The alert was cleared
    C. An autofix was executed
    D. The severity level changed to 4
    Answer: A

    19. Which cluster configuration is supported for the installation of ControlCenter components?
    A. Active/Active dual node
    B. Active/Active single node
    C. Active/Passive dual node
    D. Active/Passive single node
    Answer: C

    20. Click the Exhibit button.
    On the sample Enterprise Storage window shown, what does the capital "U" icon next to Host "UNIX2" indicate?
    A. Undefined
    B. Unavailable
    C. Unmanaged
    D. Unreachable
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-540考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-540
    问题数量:136 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-08-15
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:networked storage-nas specialist exam

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    Exam : EMC E20-540
    Title : EMC Networked Storage-nas Specialist Exam

    1. Your customer has integrated a Linux host running a third-party vendor application solution. The application uses NFS exported file systems from a NS80 to accommodate the solution databases and logs.
    Which NFS mount must be used to ensure high availability at the client host in the event of a Data Mover failover?
    A. Automounted
    B. Hard
    C. Nested
    D. Soft
    Answer: B

    2. When creating a Virtual Data Mover (VDM) on an EMC Celerra for a CIFS server, which configuration files are stored at the Virtual Data Mover level and not at the Data Mover level?
    A. Auditing and Event Log information
    B. CIFS server configuration
    C. Home directory files
    D. Local Group databases for the server in the VDM
    Answer: C

    3. Alternate Data Stream (ADS) support in Celerra is controlled by the shadow stream system parameter. What is the EMC recommended setting for this feature?
    A. disabled
    B. enabled
    C. limited
    D. multi
    Answer: B

    4. To make a Celerra file system available to NFS users, a path to the file system must exist. This is stored in which table?
    A. Control Station export table
    B. Control Station mount table
    C. Data Mover export table
    D. Data Mover mount table
    Answer: C

    5. Data Movers retrieve and maintain security settings from Group Policy Objects (GPOs) for each CIFS server joined to the Windows 2000/2003 domain. GPOs affect which Data Mover operations?
    A. Kerberos, SMB signing, auditing, event logs, user rights
    B. LDAP, Kerberos, SMB signing, event logs, user rights
    C. NTLM, LDAP, Kerberos SMB signing, user rights
    D. NTLM, LDAP, Kerberos, event logs, user rights
    Answer: A

    6. What is the limit for the number of Alternate Data Streams (ADS) that the Celerra will support?
    A. 6,000
    B. 12,000
    C. 12,8000
    D. 64,000
    Answer: D

    7. Which quota policy is recommended in a CIFS environment?
    A. Block
    B. Filesize
    C. Group
    D. User
    Answer: B

    8. Since Kerberos is time-sensitive, it is necessary for the Data Mover to be synchronized with the date and time of the Key Distribution Center (KDC). Which process keeps them synchronized?
    A. Automatic Time Function (ATF)
    B. Centralized Domain Clock (CDC)
    C. Kerberos Function Clock (KFC)
    D. Network Time Protocol (NTP)
    Answer: D

    9. To make a Celerra file system available to NFS users, a path to the file system from the Data Mover must exist. This is stored in which table?
    A. Cron
    B. DNS
    C. Export
    D. Hosts
    Answer: C

    10. A rapidly-growing company has several file servers with multiple file systems. This customer has expressed interest in EMC Celerra for consolidation and to minimize management and complexity. Which EMC Celerra feature provides the ability to export multiple file systems as a single share?
    A. MPFS
    B. NFS
    C. NMFS
    D. PFS
    Answer: C

    11. What could happen to a file system in an NFS-only environment if the maximum size limit option is left blank when creating or enabling an auto-extend file system?
    A. All available storage could be used.
    B. Auto-extension could panic the Data Mover.
    C. File system could auto-extend only once.
    D. Write Cache would be disabled until more storage is added.
    Answer: A

    12. A Celerra administrator has set a quota limit to a value of 4000 for the HR department NFS users. One of the HR users has 2000 1KB files and has reached his limit. Which quota policy has the administrator set?
    A. Block policy
    B. Directory tree policy
    C. File system policy
    D. Filesize policy
    Answer: A

    13. Your customer needs to have multiple CIFS servers running on a single physical Data Mover. Which type of share will enable the customer access through all of the available CIFS servers?
    A. Distributed
    B. Global
    C. Local
    D. Reserved
    Answer: B

    14. Which feature allows the separation of CIFS servers and their associated environment into virtual containers?
    A. Virtual Data Mover (VDM)
    B. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
    C. Virtual Resource Manager (VRM)
    D. Virtual Tape Library (VTL)
    Answer: A

    15. When setting share level permissions for CIFS exports, what are the share permission options limited to?
    A. Full control, Change, Read
    B. Full control, Read, Write
    C. Share control, Change, Read
    D. Share control, Read, Write
    Answer: A

    16. To enable the home directory feature for a Data Mover, you must create the CIFS server and then create which map file on the Data Mover?
    A. /.etc/home
    B. /.etc/homedir
    C. /homedir/username
    D. /username/homedir
    Answer: B

    17. Company XYZ just purchased an NS40 for CIFS share deployment. The company is planning on using the home directory feature of the Celerra. Which restriction must the company be aware of before deploying the home directory feature?
    A. CIFS users must have their own network drive.
    B. NT security must be disabled.
    C. Share level security cannot be used.
    D. UNIX security must be enabled.
    Answer: C

    18. Which file system mount option is recommended to guarantee that NFSv4 clients can set and retrieve ACLs?
    A. MIXED
    B. NATIVE
    C. PERM
    D. SECURE
    Answer: A

    19. Which type of file system is a collection of individual file systems that can be exported as a single share or single mount point?
    A. CIFS
    B. Linux
    C. Nested mount
    D. NFS
    Answer: C

    20. What is a prerequisite for managing home directories with the Celerra Management MMC snap-in?
    A. CIFS servers configured with share level security
    B. Export the path for the home directories as a share for the user
    C. GPO refresh policy must be enabled at the domain level
    D. The homedir file must exist in /.etc of the Data Mover
    Answer: D

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-537考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-537
    问题数量:92 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-16
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:networked storage-ns exam for storage adminsitrators

    免费e20-537题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-537
    Title : Networked storage-ns exam for storage adminsitrators

    1. Which assigns the Fibre Channel WWN?
    A. Name server
    B. Operating system
    C. System Administrator
    D. Hardware manufacturer
    Answer: D

    2. Which procedure configures Windows users’ home directories on a Celerra CIFS server?
    A. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain user
    Enable the home directory option on the Data Mover
    Export the appropriate path as the share name HOME
    Edit the profile of each users account.
    B. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain user
    Enable the home directory option on the Data Mover
    Create a directory in the correct location for each user
    Edit the profile of each existing user’s account.
    C. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain
    Export the path as the share name HOME
    Enable the home directory option on the Data Mover
    Edit the profile of each user account using the %user% variable
    D. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain
    Enable the home directory option on the Data Mover
    Create a directory in the correct location for each user
    Edit the profile of each user account using the %user% variable
    Answer: B

    3. What is one replication choice available with Celerra Replicator?
    A. remote
    B. checkpoint
    C. synchronous
    D. semi-synchronous
    Answer: A

    4. Celerra quotas are turned off. How does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
    A. it will be lost
    B. it is maintained
    C. it will still be active
    D. it becomes unavailable
    Answer: B

    5. What is stored in a Virtual Data Mover’s root file system?
    A. NTP
    B. Local Groups
    C. Usermapper configuration
    D. FTP root directory
    Answer: B

    6. Which two [2] methods stop all ICMP traffic to a network?
    A. Deny ICMP at a router
    B. Block ICMP at a switch
    C. Block the port on a firewall
    D. Enable VLAN ports at the switch
    Answer: AC

    7. With a Celerra, what is a file system creation requirement?
    A. a file system must reside on a non-root slice volume that is not in use
    B. a file system must reside on a non-root meta volume that is in use
    C. the slice volume must be at least 2 MB to accommodate a file system
    D. the meta volume must be at least 2 MB to accommodate a file system
    Answer: D

    8. What is the default authentication method used in Windows Active Directory, Native Mode?
    A. LM
    B. NIS
    C. NTLM
    D. Kerberos
    Answer: D

    9. What is the external RJ45 ported network device name of an NS system Data Mover?
    A. eth
    B. ace
    C. ana
    D. cge
    Answer: D

    10. Which solution does Celerra Replicator provide?
    A. asynchronous file system replication over an iSCSI link
    B. synchronous file system replication over an iSCSI link
    C. asynchronous file system replication over an IP link
    D. synchronous file system replication over an IP link
    Answer: C

    11. When the getreason command is used, which status identifies that a Data Mover needs to be replaced?
    A. contacted
    B. connected
    C. dos booted
    D. powered off
    Answer: D

    12. Which command is used to create a new user on the Data Mover for FTP?
    A. nas_user
    B. nas_newuser
    C. server_user
    D. server_ftpuser
    Answer: C

    13. What is a recommended use for SnapSure?
    A. as a Disaster Recovery solution
    B. for production files system mirroring
    C. as a source for incremental backups
    D. for full production file system restores when the PFS is corrupted
    Answer: C

    14. Which storage template is available in a NS Integrated system that uses ATA physical drives?
    A. CX_Standard_Raid_5
    B. CX_All_4Plus1_Raid_5
    C. ATA_CX_Standard_Raid_1
    D. ATA_RAID3_HS_4+1_8+1
    Answer: D

    15. Which protocols are available when configuring DNS on a Data Mover?
    A. TCP and IP
    B. UDP and IP
    C. TCP and UDP
    D. UDP and ICMP
    Answer: C

    16. What is the fully functional state of a Virtual Data Mover?
    A. loaded
    B. mounted
    C. PermUnloaded
    D. TempUnloaded
    Answer: A

    17. Click the Exhibit button.
    What will happen if one of the trunking network paths fails (indicated by the X)?
    A. I/O will pass on both paths
    B. The Data Mover will failover
    C. All I/O will pass on active path only
    D. I/O will wait until the failed path becomes available
    Answer: C

    18. What is the default type of a Celerra file system?
    A. ufs
    B. uxfs
    C. mgfs
    D. rawfs
    Answer: B

    19. What is used for centralized user and group management in a UNIX environment?
    A. NIS
    B. UFS
    C. UDP
    D. NTLM
    Answer: A

    20. What is one characteristic of internal usermapper?
    A. runs on Control Station
    B. no separate installation required
    C. coexist with External usermapper is recommended
    D. requires post DART code installation on the Control Station from the Celerra Application disk
    Answer: B

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-535考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-535
    问题数量:120 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-15
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage – NS Implementation

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    Exam : EMC E20-535
    Title : EMC (r) Networked Storage – NS Implementation

    1. What is the default MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) when creating an interface on a Celerra CGE (Copper Gigabit Ethernet) port?
    A. 1024
    B. 1500
    C. 2048
    D. 9000
    Answer: B

    2. What is the path utilization in an FSN environment?
    A. Uses a "Least Load" path selection
    B. Uses a "Round Robin" path selection
    C. Uses only one of the configured paths
    D. Aggregates across all configured paths
    Answer: C

    3. By default, what modes are the ports running in a Fail Safe Networking environment (FSN)?
    A. Active-Active
    B. Active-Standby
    C. Load Balanced
    D. Primary-Secondary
    Answer: B

    4. You have received reports that performance of a Data Mover is extremely slow. What is a possible cause?
    A. Data Mover failover
    B. Duplicate IP addresses
    C. Misconfigured VLAN membership of Data Mover ports
    D. Speed and duplex mismatch between Data Mover and Ethernet switch
    Answer: D

    5. Which default protocol is used by a Data Mover for DNS functions?
    A. UDP
    B. TCP
    C. NFS
    D. CIFS
    Answer: A

    6. What is a rule for a standby Data Mover configuration?
    A. A standby for a standby is an unsupported configuration
    B. File systems can be temporarily mounted on the standby
    C. The standby does not have the same disk configuration as the primary
    D. A Data Mover can perform the role of a primary and standby Data Mover at the same time
    Answer: A

    7. You are performing a Data Mover failover test of server_2 at a time that will pose minimal impact to corporate users. The Data Mover is used only to export CIFS shares.
    What should be done to verify the failover was successful?
    A.Check that all file systems were mounted using server_mount
    Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
    Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
    Verify network connections using ping to ping the default gateway
    B.Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
    Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
    Verify network connections by accessing all data from network clients
    Verify access to CIFS shares as a new user
    C.Check that all file systems were mounted using server_mount
    Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
    Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
    Verify network connections using server_sysconfig and server_ifconfig
    D.Check that all file systems were mounted using server_mount
    Check that all file systems were exported using server_export
    Verify that the CIFS service has started using server_cifs
    Verify network connections using server_ping to ping the default gateway
    Answer: B

    8. As shown below, you have configured network interfaces in the following order:
    The default gateway is 10.127.76.1.
    When issuing server_ping to the default gateway, which network device will transmit the ping?
    A. cge0
    B. cge1
    C. cge2
    D. cge3
    Answer: D

    9. An administrator finds that the Data Mover failover has not occurred although the administrator has a standby Data Mover configured. What is the possible cause for the problem?
    A. Peer Power function is unavailable
    B. Control Station has failed and is unavailable
    C. Control Station is unable to detect a heartbeat
    D. Control Station fibre connection to the backend is unavailable
    Answer: B

    10. An FSN device is configured with physical devices of dissimilar characteristics. What is the reason for implementing the "primary" option on this device?
    A. To ensure that both paths are always active
    B. To allow connectivity to dissimilar network switches
    C. To ensure the best path is given priority for functionality
    D. To prevent the primary path for automatically resuming on recovery
    Answer: C

    11. What is a rule for a standby Data Mover configuration?
    A. A standby can be created for a standby
    B. File systems cannot be temporarily mounted on the standby
    C. The standby must not have the same disk configuration as the primary
    D. A Data Mover can perform the role of a primary and standby Data Mover at the same time
    Answer: B

    12. You are performing a Data Mover failover test of server_2 at a time that will pose minimal impact to corporate users. After performing the failover, you verify that the standby Data Mover successfully mounts, exports all file systems, and takes over as server_2.
    Five minutes after the failover, users begin reporting that they can no longer access some of their shares. After further investigation you find that, while most shares are accessible via the CIFS servers on server_2, all shares exported through the "finance1" CIFS server are inaccessible. You also learn that the "finance2" and "engineering1" CIFS servers on server_2 are working without problems.
    What is the likely cause of the problem?
    A. The CIFS service was not started on the standby.
    B. The CIFS service was not started for the "finance1" CIFS server.
    C. The Ethernet switch has Etherchannel configured for the primary Data Mover connections but not the standby.
    D. New disks were added to the storage array but were never added to the configuration database for the standby Data Mover.
    Answer: C

    13. A customer is establishing a link between their headquarters office and their remote sales office. Response to the remote office from the headquarters site is slow; however, response within the headquarters’ site is acceptable.
    What could be a probable cause for this scenario?
    A. Different network routes
    B. Incorrect VLAN membership
    C. High utilization of the Ethernet switches in the headquarters office
    D. Poor network latency between headquarters and the remote office
    Answer: D

    14. When using a Symmetrix in a Fibre Channel environment, how is the Fibre Channel WWN of the FA determined?
    A. Hardware manufacturer, system serial number, and FA slot ID
    B. iSNS registration number, system serial number, and FA slot ID
    C. Hardware manufacturer, system IP address, and FA serial number
    D. iSNS registration number, system IP address, and FA serial number
    Answer: A

    15. What accurately describes the process of adding a Data Mover to an NS-series Celerra?
    A. The NS system must be powered off
    B. The Control Station must be powered off
    C. The Data Mover is added non-disruptively
    D. The existing Data Mover must be powered off
    Answer: C

    16. You are performing a Data Mover failover test of server_2 at a time that will pose minimal impact to corporate users. After performing the failover, you verify that the standby Data Mover successfully mounts, exports all file systems, and takes over as server_2.
    Five minutes after the failover, users begin reporting that they can no longer access some of their shares. After further investigation you find that, while most shares are accessible via the CIFS servers on server_2, all shares exported through the "finance1" CIFS server are inaccessible. You also learn that the "finance2" and "engineering1" CIFS servers on server_2 are working without problems.
    What is the likely cause of the problem?
    A. The CIFS service was not started on the standby Data Mover.
    B. The CIFS service was not started for the "finance1" CIFS server.
    C. New disks were added to the storage array but were never added to the configuration database for the standby Data Mover.
    D. The network cable of the standby Data Mover, associated with the "finance1" CIFS server, is assigned to the incorrect VLAN.
    Answer: D

    17. What is a component of CIFS?
    A. NIS
    B. FTP
    C. NFS
    D. UNC
    Answer: D

    18. What is a characteristic of Kerberos?
    A. Uses access tokens to hold a user’s SID
    B. Key Distribution Center manages the keys
    C. Security encryption used by authentication protocols
    D. Provides encryption of passwords sent to Domain controllers
    Answer: B

    19. What is a rule for a standby Data Mover configuration?
    A. A standby can be created for a standby
    B. File systems can be temporarily mounted on the standby
    C. The standby must have the same disk configuration as the primary
    D. A Data Mover can perform the role of a primary and standby Data Mover at the same time
    Answer: C

    20. You are configuring a new Data Mover for network access. What is the recommend configuration?
    A. Set speed and duplex to auto negotiate
    B. Set speed and duplex configuration to match the Ethernet switch ports
    C. Start with speed and duplex settings of 10Mbs/half-duplex and increase if necessary
    D. Set speed to the fastest supported setting for the Data Mover model and duplex to full
    Answer: B

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-533考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-533
    问题数量:92 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-14
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:Networked Storage – SAN Specialist

    免费e20-533题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-533
    Title : Networked Storage – SAN Specialist

    1. Which assigns the Fibre Channel WWN?
    A. Name server
    B. Operating system
    C. System Administrator
    D. Hardware manufacturer
    Answer: D

    2. What is one function of the Control Station?
    A. Allows you to configure CLARiiON LUNs
    B. Allows you to manage the CNS-14 and everything attached to it
    C. Enables you to install and upgrade software on the storage system
    D. Provides installation, configuration and management features for the CNS-14
    Answer: D

    3. What is used for centralized user and group management in a UNIX environment?
    A. NIS
    B. UFS
    C. UDP
    D. NTLM
    Answer: A

    4. Click the Exhibit button.
    Two Celerras are located in London and Boston. A NAS solution is required that maintains a copy of the Celerra data on a Sun server in Hong Kong, and an HP server in Sydney. Which NAS solution is appropriate?
    A. FarCopy
    B. Replicator
    C. OnCourse
    D. Symmetrix Remote Data Facility
    Answer: C

    5. What is stored in a Virtual Data Mover’s root file system?
    A. NTP
    B. Local Groups
    C. Usermapper configuration
    D. FTP root directory
    Answer: B

    6. What is a benefit of Celerra Data Migration Service (CDMS)?
    A. Minimal service disruption
    B. Manual migration of all old data
    C. Automatic data defragmentation
    D. Automatic restoration of multi-protocol permissions
    Answer: A

    7. What are two [2] approved uses of EMC’s implementation of Cisco Systems Fast EthernetChannel (Celerra Trunking)?
    A. Bandwidth Aggregation
    B. Fault Tolerance among single switch ports
    C. Fault Tolerance between multiple switch ports
    D. Combining multiple physical interfaces into a logical interface
    Answer: BD

    8. Which storage template is available in a NS Integrated system that uses ATA physical drives?
    A. CX_Standard_Raid_5
    B. CX_All_4Plus1_Raid_5
    C. ATA_CX_Standard_Raid_1
    D. ATA_RAID3_HS_4+1_8+1
    Answer: D

    9. Which industry standard network backup protocol is supported on Celerra?
    A. Simple Data Backup Protocol
    B. Network Data Backup Protocol
    C. Direct Connect Backup Protocol
    D. Network Data Management Protocol
    Answer: D

    10. What is the default type of a Celerra file system?
    A. ufs
    B. uxfs
    C. mgfs
    D. rawfs
    Answer: B

    11. What is the full path for the UNIX "hosts" file?
    A. /etc/hosts
    B. /unix/hosts
    C. C:etchosts
    D. C:winntsystem32driversetchosts
    Answer: A

    12. What is one characteristic of SnapSure?
    A. can mount a checkpoint on any Data Mover
    B. multiple checkpoints are linked in chronological order
    C. checkpoint is independent of its Production File System
    D. checkpoint shares the same volume as the Production File System
    Answer: B

    13. On which volume type is a file system created?
    A. Celerra disk volume
    B. Celerra slice volume
    C. Celerra meta volume
    D. Celerra stripe volume
    Answer: C

    14. Which statement is correct about Virtual Data Movers [VDMs]?
    A. VDMs can change from UNICODE to ASCII
    B. VDMs can be used as default CIFS servers
    C. VDMs cannot use shared logical interfaces
    D. VDMs can support two CIFS servers with the same computer name
    Answer: C

    15. What is used in a UNIX environment to mount a remote file system?
    A. NFS
    B. UFS
    C. CIFS
    D. VxFS
    Answer: A

    16. A NAS solution is required that includes high availability and always available network connections. The Ethernet switch is made by Typhoon Data Networks and is IEEE compliant. Which EMC NAS networking solution must be implemented?
    A. DHCP
    B. VLAN
    C. LACP
    D. EthernetChannel
    Answer: C

    17. What are two [2] accurate statements about Virtual Data Movers [VDMs]?
    A. support NFS only
    B. support CIFS and NFS
    C. do not support CDMS
    D. do not support CPU/memory resource allocation
    Answer: CD

    18. When the getreason command is used, which status identifies that a Data Mover needs to be replaced?
    A. contacted
    B. connected
    C. dos booted
    D. powered off
    Answer: D

    19. Which command is used to create a new user on the Data Mover for FTP?
    A. nas_user
    B. nas_newuser
    C. server_user
    D. server_ftpuser
    Answer: C

    20. Which protocols are available when configuring DNS on a Data Mover?
    A. TCP and IP
    B. UDP and IP
    C. TCP and UDP
    D. UDP and ICMP
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-522考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-522
    问题数量:170 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-28
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:clariion solutions specialist exam for storage adminsitrator

    免费e20-522题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-522
    Title : Clariion Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Adminsitrator

    1. Which CLARiiON feature allows for the creation of storage groups and the attachment of hosts?
    A. Access Logix
    B. HBA Connectivity
    C. Navisphere Agent
    D. SP Enablers
    Answer: C

    2. Which feature does the PowerPath CLI provide?
    A. Allows a host to access a storage group
    B. Masks any of the LUNs on the CLARiiON to the host
    C. Sets I/O rate limits on a per-path basis
    D. Sets the load-balancing policy for a LUN
    Answer: B

    3. NQM has been enabled. What is done with LUNs that are NOT explicitly part of an I/O class?
    A. Automatically placed in a background class
    B. I/Os are averaged across defined I/O classes
    C. LUNs are ignored by NQM
    D. Placed in the Unused LUNs class
    Answer: B

    4. A MirrorView/A mirror has been configured with the "End of Last Update" value set to 15. An update cycle starts at 3:10
    P.M. (15:10) and finishes at 3:30 P.M. (15:30).
    When does the next cycle start?
    A. 3:30 P.M. (15:30)
    B. 3:35 P.M. (15:35)
    C. 3:40 P.M. (15:40)
    D. 3:45 P.M. (15:45)
    Answer: C

    5. What is one way a snapshot provides a point-in-time view of a source LUN?
    A. Limiting the number of assigned snapshots to eight
    B. Tracking the changes in the clone private LUN
    C. Using pointers to track whether the data resides on the source LUN or in the reserved LUN pool
    D. Writing the new data to the reserved LUN pool every time the data changes
    Answer: C

    6. A CLARiiON array has three production LUNs: 10 GB, 20 GB, and 30 GB. What does EMC recommend for the quantity and size of each reserved LUN in the reserved LUN pool when the rate of change is unknown?
    A. Configure the reserved LUN pool with six LUNs of 2 GB each
    B. Configure the reserved LUN pool with six LUNs; two 1 GB, two 2 GB, and two 3 GB
    C. Configure the reserved LUN pool with three LUNs of 1 GB each
    D. Configure the reserved LUN pool with three LUNs; 2 GB, 4 GB, and 6 GB
    Answer: A

    7. Which statement describes a consideration in configuring the reserved LUN pool?
    A. All reserved LUN pool LUNs must be the same RAID type on disks of the same speed.
    B. LUN IDs of LUNs assigned to an SP’s LUN pool may not exceed 2047 on a CLARiiON CX4-240.
    C. Simulation mode can be used to estimate a suitable reserved LUN pool LUN size.
    D. Use of smaller reserved LUNs results in less unused reserved LUN pool space.
    Answer: D

    8. What is one way a snapshot provides a point-in-time view of a source LUN?
    A. Copying the original data to the reserved LUN pool the first time the data changes
    B. Limiting the number of assigned snapshots to eight
    C. Tracking the changes in the clone private LUN
    D. Writing the new data to the reserved LUN pool the first time the data changes
    Answer: A

    9. A customer starts three SnapView sessions on a source LUN at 1:00 P.M., 2:00 P.M., and 3:00 P.M. At 3:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of space.
    What will happen next?
    A. Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released
    B. Reserved LUN allocated first will be released
    C. Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released
    D. Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released
    Answer: D

    10. What is a supported host for a SnapView snapshot to be mounted?
    A. On a secondary host multiple times
    B. On a secondary host running a different O/S
    C. On a secondary host running the same O/S
    D. On the production host running Windows
    Answer: B

    11. Which statement describes a consideration in configuring the reserved LUN pool?
    A. An overflow LUN factor of 3x is recommended to create three times as many reserved LUNs as source LUNs.
    B. Due to automatic LUN assignment, all reserved LUN pool LUNs must be the same RAID type.
    C. Simulation recovery mode can be used to estimate a suitable reserved LUN pool LUN size.
    D. Use of multiple smaller reserved LUN pool LUNs results in less unused reserved LUN pool space.
    Answer: D

    12. On a CLARiiON, the reserved LUN pool currently has four unassigned reserved LUNs. All four LUNs have SP B as their default owner. What will happen if a session, owned by SP A, runs out of reserved LUN pool space?
    A. The session will be assigned one of the four currently unassigned LUNs.
    B. The session will be terminated and the failure will be logged.
    C. The session will pause until a LUN owned by SP A is added to the reserved LUN pool.
    D. The session will trespass to SP B and one of the four LUNs will be assigned to the session.
    Answer: A

    13. Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
    A. All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
    B. LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4097.
    C. Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
    D. Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
    Answer: C

    14. Which statement describes how the reserved LUN pool functions?
    A. Due to automatic LUN assignment, all reserved LUN pool LUNs must be the same size and the same RAID type.
    B. LUNs may be added to, but cannot be removed from, the reserved LUN pool.
    C. SnapView allocates another available reserved LUN to the source LUN when a reserved LUN is full.
    D. When a reserved LUN is allocated to a source LUN pool, space is allocated at the end of the reserved LUN for the pointers needed to track the chunks on that source LUN.
    Answer: C

    15. Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
    A. Due to automatic LUN assignment, all reserved LUN pool LUNs must be the same size and the same RAID type.
    B. Each LUN in the reserved LUN pool may be assigned to multiple source LUNs.
    C. Reserved LUN pool is shared with SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
    D. Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
    Answer: C

    16. A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing. The administrator may want to copy the content of the point-in-time copy to the production LUN when testing is complete. The administrator’s goal is to minimize the performance impact on the production LUN.
    Which solution should the administrator use?
    A. Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
    B. Use a clone and promote it as needed
    C. Use a snapshot and roll back as needed
    D. Use Incremental SAN Copy and roll back as needed
    Answer: A

    17. A SnapView session is started on LUN 100, which has SP A as the default and current owner. LUN 200 is the reserved LUN assigned to the source LUN and has SP B as its default owner.
    When Copy On First Write (COFW) activity starts, where will the session pointers be stored?
    A. LUN 100 and SP A
    B. LUN 100 and SP B
    C. LUN 200 and SP A
    D. LUN 200 and SP B
    Answer: C

    18. Which statement applies to a SnapView snapshot?
    A. A snapshot is available within several minutes for secondary host access
    B. A snapshot is dependent on the source LUN
    C. A snapshot is independent of the source LUN
    D. A snapshot requires a dedicated reserved LUN pool for each source LUN
    Answer: B

    19. A customer needs to create two SnapView snapshots on each of the 128 source LUNs. What does this require?
    A. The CLARiiON must support at least 128 reserved LUNs.
    B. The CLARiiON must support at least 256 reserved LUNs.
    C. There can be no more than 128 SnapView snapshots.
    D. There can be no more than 256 SnapView sessions.
    Answer: A

    20. A customer starts three SnapView sessions on a source LUN at 1:00 P.M., 2:00 P.M., and 3:00 P.M. At 3:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of space.
    What will happen next?
    A. Newest session will be terminated
    B. Oldest session will be terminated
    C. Session that performed the most recent write will be terminated
    D. Sessions will all be terminated
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-530考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-530
    问题数量:110 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-12
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:networked storage-san specialist exam

    免费e20-530题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-530
    Title : Storage Area Network (SAN) Specialist Exam

    1. Which CLI command is used for Device Masking?
    A. fzone
    B. symcfg
    C. symmask
    D. symconfig
    Answer: C

    2. Which Cisco tool is used to monitor, configure and manage multiple MDS switches?
    A. Device Tools
    B. SAN Manager
    C. Fabric Manager
    D. Connectrix Manager
    Answer: C

    3. A customer cannot discover his Brocade switches within ControlCenter. Which command must be run on the switch to resolve this?
    A. snmpshow
    B. configure
    C. agtcfgset
    D. snmpmibcapset
    Answer: D

    4. What does the RCT_L frame field setting indicate?
    A. The arbitrated frame size
    B. Whether a primitive function has been requested
    C. The sequence number of the frame in an ordered set
    D. Whether the fame contains link control information or data
    Answer: D

    5. Which two [2] components are required to use SAN Manager?
    A. NAS Agent
    B. FCC Agent
    C. SDM Agent
    D. SAN Manager license
    Answer: CD

    6. From Connectrix Manager, which two [2] levels of user rights can be assigned to specific users?
    A. Fabric Administrator
    B. System Administrator
    C. Product Administrator
    D. Configuration Administrator
    Answer: BC

    7. What does EMC VisualSAN 4.0 use to gather Brocade Switch information?
    A. SNMP
    B. Webtools
    C. SCSI INQ
    D. Navisphere CLI
    Answer: A

    8. Which two [2] UNIX utilities are used to test network connectivity?
    A. ping
    B. ifconfig
    C. nslookup
    D. traceroute
    Answer: AD

    9. How many switching modules (line cards) can be inserted into the MDS-9509 Director?
    A. 5
    B. 6
    C. 7
    D. 8
    Answer: C

    10. In either a UNIX or Windows environment, which command is used for PowerPath monitoring and management?
    A. powermt
    B. powermon
    C. pp_select
    D. powerdisplay
    Answer: A

    11. What is the recommended minimum amount of memory in a management station for an EMC VisualSAN 4.0 installation in a mid-sized SAN?
    A. 256 MB
    B. 512 MB
    C. 1 GB
    D. 2 GB
    Answer: C

    12. Which native command on a B-series switch will provide data for EMC Customer Service?
    A. showtech
    B. supportshow
    C. supportlogs
    D. switchsupport
    Answer: B

    13. When are zoning changes made in EMC VisualSAN 4.0 saved on a DS-16B2 switch?
    A. Immediately
    B. When they are refreshed
    C. When they are committed
    D. At next 30 minute information refresh
    Answer: C

    14. Which option is used to prevent mirroring at the host level if the device is already mirrored at the storage level in a PowerPath Volume Manager 4.x environment?
    A. HW_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_SW_POLICY
    B. NO_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_HW_POLICY
    C. SW_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_HW_POLICY
    D. DISABLE_MIRRORS_ON_REDUNDANT_HW_POLICY
    Answer: C

    15. In the OSI 7-layer Network Model, which layer describes the cabling used to create Fibre Channel SANs?
    A. Layer 1, Physical
    B. Layer 2, Data Link
    C. Layer 3, Network
    D. Layer 6, Presentation
    Answer: A

    16. Click the Exhibit button.
    What is represented by data flow in the picture?
    A. FCIP representation of remote DR
    B. ISCSI representation of remote DR
    C. FCIP representation of remote backup
    D. ISCSI representation of remote backup
    Answer: A

    17. Which describes the non-blocking architecture deployed in M-series switches?
    A. Allows frames to be sent to destination ports based on the receiving ports availability
    B. Switch operations which move data across the bus into CMM and finally to MPC for delivery
    C. Memory based operations which fence partitions of memory into bit-buckets for data delivery
    D. Allows memory segmentation across the s/bar platform permitting data re-direction based on ASIC availability
    Answer: A

    18. Click the Exhibit button.
    In this implementation, gateways are used to connect existing Fibre Channel devices to an IP network, and as such will include physical interfaces for which two [2] networks?
    A. IP
    B. ATM
    C. Sonet
    D. Fibre Channel
    Answer: AD

    19. Which is an EMC recommended best practice when doing fabric zoning?
    A. Single FA zoning
    B. Multiple FA zoning
    C. Single HBA zoning
    D. Multiple HBA zoning
    Answer: C

    20. Which two [2] management tools have SAN zoning capabilities in a McDATA environment?
    A. Connectrix Manager
    B. Fabric Control Watch
    C. Embedded Web Server
    D. Storage Virtualization Control
    Answer: AC

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-532考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-532
    问题数量:113 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-13
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:networked storage-san specialist exam for storage admins

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    Exam : EMC E20-532
    Title : Storage Area Network (SAN) Specialist for Storage Admins

    1. Which MDS-9000 director/switch is capable of supporting the emerging 10Gb bandwidth?
    A. 9140
    B. 9216
    C. 9509
    D. 9549
    Answer: C

    2. In the OSI 7-layer Network Model, which layer describes the cabling used to create Fibre Channel SANs?
    A. Layer 1, Physical
    B. Layer 2, Data Link
    C. Layer 3, Network
    D. Layer 6, Presentation
    Answer: A

    3. Which statement about the MDS 9000 32-port switch module is correct?
    A. Can support 16 ISLs
    B. Has a non-blocking architecture
    C. Shares 2Gb bandwidth among four ports
    D. Has more bandwidth than the 16 port module
    Answer: C

    4. Which Cisco tool is used to monitor, configure and manage multiple MDS switches?
    A. Device Tools
    B. SAN Manager
    C. Fabric Manager
    D. Connectrix Manager
    Answer: C

    5. From Connectrix Manager, which two [2] levels of user rights can be assigned to specific users?
    A. Fabric Administrator
    B. System Administrator
    C. Product Administrator
    D. Configuration Administrator
    Answer: BC

    6. How many DS-32M2 switches can be mounted in a single EC-1200 cabinet?
    A. 10
    B. 12
    C. 14
    D. 16
    Answer: B

    7. The PowerPath command, powermt, has reported a number of devices as dead. Which commands are used to remove the dead devices?
    A. powercf check; powermt restore; powermt config
    B. powermt check; powermt restore; powermt config
    C. powermt restore; powermt check; powermt config
    D. powercf restore; powermt restore; powermt config
    Answer: C

    8. A customer has plugged a new host into his SAN but cannot see the HBA WWNs appear in the Topology. What are two [2] ways to resolve?
    A. Reset the switch
    B. Rediscover the switch
    C. Enable SNMP on the switches
    D. Install the Host Agent and wait for the host to be discovered
    Answer: BD

    9. Which database service needs to be verified if EMC VisualSAN 4.0 displays errors on program start?
    A. Oracle 8i
    B. Informix 9
    C. Sybase 11
    D. SQL Server 2000
    Answer: D

    10. How many bits does a WWN contain?
    A. 16
    B. 24
    C. 32
    D. 64
    Answer: D

    11. How many buffer-to-buffer (BB) credits can be used on ports 4-23 in a DS-24M2 switch?
    A. 5
    B. 12
    C. 24
    D. 60
    Answer: A

    12. Click the Exhibit button.
    What is represented by data flow in the picture?
    A. FCIP representation of remote DR
    B. ISCSI representation of remote DR
    C. FCIP representation of remote backup
    D. ISCSI representation of remote backup
    Answer: A

    13. How many buffer-to-buffer (BB) credits can be allocated to a port on a Brocade DS16-B2 (Brocade 3×00) series switch?
    A. 27
    B. 54
    C. 64
    D. 108
    Answer: D

    14. Which native command on a B-series switch will provide data for EMC Customer Service?
    A. showtech
    B. supportshow
    C. supportlogs
    D. switchsupport
    Answer: B

    15. A new HBA is added to a Sun Solaris host. After a reconfiguration reboot, the new HBA is logged into the FA port on the Symmetrix, but it cannot see any devices. Which two [2] must be verified?
    A. Correct HBA WWN and FA association exists in the VCMDB
    B. LUN number conversion from hexadecimal to decimal in the sd.conf file
    C. LUN number conversion from decimal to hexadecimal in the sd.conf file
    D. LUN number conversion from hexadecimal to decimal in HBA driver configuration file on the host
    Answer: AB

    16. Which two [2] management tools have SAN zoning capabilities in a McDATA environment?
    A. Connectrix Manager
    B. Fabric Control Watch
    C. Embedded Web Server
    D. Storage Virtualization Control
    Answer: AC

    17. What is the recommended minimum amount of memory in a management station for an EMC VisualSAN 4.0 installation in a mid-sized SAN?
    A. 256 MB
    B. 512 MB
    C. 1 GB
    D. 2 GB
    Answer: C

    18. Which command is used to backup the configuration of a Brocade switch?
    A. backupConfig
    B. configUpload
    C. configDownload
    D. firmwareDownload
    Answer: B

    19. Which version of HBA firmware must be used with PowerPath?
    A. Current HBA firmware
    B. Firmware shipped with HBA
    C. Latest HBA Firmware from vendor
    D. Current approved EMC HBA firmware
    Answer: D

    20. Click the Exhibit button.
    In this implementation, gateways are used to connect existing Fibre Channel devices to an IP network, and as such will include physical interfaces for which two [2] networks?
    A. IP
    B. ATM
    C. Sonet
    D. Fibre Channel
    Answer: AD

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-520考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-520
    问题数量:186 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-29
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:calriion solutions specialist exam

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    Exam : EMC E20-520
    Title : calriion solutions specialist exam

    1. How does a SAN Copy session failover upon SP failure?
    A. Automatically, via PowerPath
    B. Manually, via user intervention
    C. Conditionally, via host intervention
    D. Automatically, via storage system redundancy
    Answer: B

    2. Which feature best describes the PSM LUN on the CX series?
    A. Each SP accesses its own copy
    B. Default size is 2GB on a CX array
    C. Not viewable in Navisphere Manager
    D. Created after array initialization by the user
    Answer: C

    3. After completing the CLARiiON SAN attach procedure, the Windows host is not logging into the Storage Processor. What is one condition that can cause the problem?
    A. Improper zoning
    B. Incorrect sd.conf
    C. Did not install Agent
    D. Did not install PowerPath
    Answer: A

    4. Which Navisphere Event Monitor model uses an SP agent to monitor only the storage system on which the SP agent resides?
    A. Individual
    B. Enterprise
    C. Distributed
    D. Centralized
    Answer: C

    5. Which feature does the PowerPath GUI provide to users?
    A. Change the failover policy of a LUN
    B. Change the CLARiiON SP from active to standby
    C. Provide the CLARiiON with active-active failover policy
    D. PowerPath is required for a host to connect to a storage group
    Answer: A

    6. Which combination is supported for a SAN Copy transfer?
    A. SAN Copy/E licensed on a CX200 connected to a CX500 with SAN Copy licensed
    B. SAN Copy/E licensed on a CX300 connected to a CX500 with SAN Copy licensed
    C. SAN Copy/E licensed on a CX500 connected to a CX500 with SAN Copy licensed
    D. SAN Copy/E licensed on a CX500 connected to a CX700 with SAN Copy licensed
    Answer: B

    7. What is one way a Snapshot provides a "point-in-time" view of a source LUN?
    A. By writing the new data to the Reserved LUN pool each time it changes
    B. By writing the new data to the Reserved LUN pool the first time it changes
    C. By copying the original data to the Reserved LUN pool the first time it changes
    D. By limiting the number of Snapshots to eight that can be assigned to a LUN at the same time
    Answer: C

    8. The CFM Corporation believes its data is going through the wrong switch in the fabric. They put a protocol analyzer online to capture the output. Where should they look to see if the data is being routed incorrectly?
    A. The fourth byte of the destination WWPN
    B. The eighth byte of the destination WWPN
    C. The first byte of the destination Fibre Channel address
    D. The second byte of the destination Fibre Channel address
    Answer: C

    9. What is a valid Navisphere CLI command?
    A. navicli getlun -h 192.168.2.125
    B. navicli -d 192.168.2.125 getlun -rg
    C. navicli -h 192.168.2.125 getlun -rg
    D. java.jar navicli -address 192.168.2.16 metalun -list
    Answer: C

    10. Which event occurs when starting a new SnapView Snapshot session against a source LUN?
    A. The creation of a session name
    B. The creation of a SnapView Snapshot
    C. The association of a SnapView Snapshot with the session
    D. The copying of production data blocks to the Reserved LUN pool
    Answer: A

    11. THB Corporation has a database consisting of one log LUN and four data LUNs. The company plans to mirror the database to two remote locations with MirrorView/S. How should it plan to maintain the consistency of the database?
    A. Create a MirrorView/S consistency group, and ensure that all five mirrors are members of the consistency group
    B. Consistency cannot be maintained with MirrorView/S. They should consider MirrorView/A with consistency groups
    C. Consistency cannot be maintained because MirrorView/S does not support consistency groups with two secondary images
    D. Consistency cannot be maintained because MirrorView/S does not support consistency groups where log LUNs are members
    Answer: C

    12. Which statement best describes the source LUN when using LUN migration?
    A. Can be a private LUN
    B. Cannot be a metaLUN
    C. Can be in the process of binding
    D. Cannot be a component of a metaLUN
    Answer: D

    13. What is a feature of Access Logix?
    A. LUN Masking
    B. Controls access to data through file locking
    C. Masks host WWNs via Access Control lists
    D. Restricts one host at a time to accessing one LUN at a time
    Answer: A

    14. In an Emulex HBA Solaris host Installation, which file is edited to force the host to perform a Fabric login to a switch?
    A. sd.conf
    B. lpfc.conf
    C. lputil.conf
    D. /etc/system
    Answer: B

    15. What is an attribute of a Clone Private LUN?
    A. Contains Fracture Logs
    B. Contains Write Intent Logs
    C. Must be the same RAID type as the source LUN
    D. Shared by both storage processors simultaneously
    Answer: A

    16. Which function is disabled when PowerPath is installed without a license key?
    A. Failover
    B. Multipathing
    C. LUNZ functionality
    D. Access to peer SP paths
    Answer: B

    17. What is a characteristic of Event Monitor?
    A. Integrated with Navisphere Manager
    B. Loaded as a separately purchased NDU
    C. Monitors for hardware-related events only
    D. Monitors only for Navisphere defined events
    Answer: A

    18. Which option is selectable in the Create RAID Group dialogue box?
    A. RAID Type
    B. RAID Group ID
    C. Enable Write Cache
    D. Manual Destroy after LUN is unbound
    Answer: B

    19. Which feature does the PowerPath CLI provide to users?
    A. Set the failover policy for a LUN
    B. Provide the CLARiiON with active-active failover policy
    C. PowerPath is required for a host to connect to a storage group
    D. Mask any of the LUNs on the storage array connected to the host
    Answer: A

    20. The VisualSRM agent installation can be performed locally on each host. What other method can be used for installation?
    A. pkgadd utility
    B. Pull installation
    C. Push installation
    D. At system reboot
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-512考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-512
    问题数量:240 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-09
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:business continuity specialist exam for storage admins

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    Exam : EMC E20-512
    Title : Symmetrix Business Continuity Specialist for Storage Admins

    1. Which statement describes a benefit for using Replication Manager?
    A. Automates concurrent replication between multiple storage arrays
    B. Facilitates quick, frequent, and non-disruptive backups
    C. Mounts multiple replicas to the same mount point
    D. Uses HP StorageWorks RAID technology to automate restore operations
    Answer: B

    2. How does Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA) differ from PowerPath?
    A. ECA and PowerPath I/O suspensions do not differ from each another.
    B. ECA supports I/O suspension for hot splits while PowerPath does not.
    C. ECA suspends I/O at the host level while PowerPath suspends I/O at the Symmetrix level.
    D. ECA suspends I/O at the Symmetrix level while PowerPath suspends I/O at the host level.
    Answer: D

    3. You have created an EMC Replication Manager job to replicate your SQL Server database. You now want to delegate the day-to-day management of this job to another user with Database Administrator privileges within Replication Manager. This user complains that they are unable to access the job you created.
    What must you do to enable your Database Administrator to access this job?
    A. Grant the user access to the database on SQL Server.
    B. Manually add the user account to the job.
    C. Recreate the SQL Server job.
    D. Upgrade the user’s privileges to Power DBA.
    Answer: B

    4. A customer requests that you create a user account for administering jobs and storage pools in EMC Replication Manager, but without controlling the storage array itself.
    What is the required account type that will satisfy only these operations?
    A. Database Administrator
    B. Operator
    C. Power DBA
    D. Power User
    Answer: C

    5. What is the purpose of the half delete action in SRDF/Star?
    A. Used to dissolve RDF relationships when a partner device is unavailable
    B. Used to initiate a Star recovery procedure
    C. Used to reset the first two mirror positions to fully invalid
    D. Used to reverse the data flow after a link failure
    Answer: A

    6. Click on the Exhibit Button.
    Using the SRDF/Star configuration, what would Star automation provide in the case of a Site 1 failure?
    A. Convert R2s to R1s of Site 2 and Site 2 to Site 3 differential resync
    B. Convert R2s to R1s of Site 2 and Site 2 to Site 3 full resync
    C. Site 2 to Site 3 differential resync
    D. Site 3 to Site 2 full resync
    Answer: A

    7. What is the correct sequence of events when a synchronous write occurs in SRDF/S?
    1. Host issues a write I/O
    2. Remote Symmetrix acknowledges receipt of write
    3. Write is transmitted to remote Symmetrix cache
    4. Write is received in cache at source Symmetrix
    5. Source Symmetrix acknowledges write completion to host
    A. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
    B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
    C. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
    D. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
    Answer: B

    8. What is an advantage of using Open Replicator compared to the SRDF family of replication products?
    A. When a zero data loss solution is required
    B. When the environment contains a heterogeneous mixture of storage arrays
    C. When the environment contains a homogenous set of storage arrays
    D. When the environment contains servers with sufficient processor and memory
    Answer: B

    9. Click on the Exhibit Button.
    A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix and its data stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix.
    Both source Symmetrix frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix at the disaster recovery site. There are two device groups that have been defined: one group for the data volume on the data source Symmetrix and one for the log volume on the log source Symmetrix.
    What happens if the SRDF links between the log source Symmetrix and the target Symmetrix were to fail?
    A. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing would automatically be switched over to the disaster recovery Site.
    B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the disaster recovery site.
    C. The R1 volumes in the log source Symmetrix would become write-disabled to the database server.
    D. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist technology would ensure data consistency.
    Answer: B

    10. Click on the Exhibit Button.
    Which Open Replicator operations can be performed between the DMX and third-party array with the architecture displayed?
    A. Cold and Hot Push and Pull
    B. Cold Push and Pull
    C. Hot Push and Pull
    D. None; all FA ports must be zoned to the target array
    Answer: B

    11. What can happen if BCV copies of database log and data volumes are created without using a consistent split while the database is running?
    A. Database inconsistencies can occur
    B. Database integrity is assured with Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA) technology
    C. The database application can block an I/O while waiting for the split operation to occur
    D. The split may never finish due to database inconsistency
    Answer: A

    12. When performing LUN masking operations to support Open Replicator, what must be done to ensure that data can be accessed between two Symmetrix systems?
    A. Grant device access to the WWN of the controlling FA ports for the remote devices on the remote FA ports
    B. Grant device access to the WWN of the host HBA ports for the remote devices on the controlling FA ports
    C. Grant device access to the WWN of the host HBA ports for the remote devices on the remote FA ports
    D. Grant device access to the WWN of the remote FA ports for the remote devices on the controlling FA ports
    Answer: A

    13. A customer would like to create a point-in-time copy of the data for development purposes. The customer environment is not performance-sensitive. The customer would like to access the point-in-time copy at 9 A.M.
    The amount of time required to copy the data from the source to the target is 60 minutes and application downtime is not available. Which solution is recommended?
    A. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create and activate a clone with the background copy (-copy) option at 8 A.M.
    B. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create a clone with the background copy (-copy) option at or before 8 A.M. Activate the clone at 9 A.M.
    C. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create a clone using the deferred copy mode (default) prior to 9 A.M. Activate the clone with the consistent option at 9 A.M.
    D. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create a clone with the Precopy (-precopy) option at or before 8 A.M. Activate the clone at 9 A.M.
    Answer: C

    14. When using Open Replicator to do a Hot Pull without the donor_update option set, what is the result of terminating the session before it is complete?
    A. Requests for data not yet copied will cause a priority retrieve of the data from the remote volume.
    B. Session will run to completion before actually terminating.
    C. The local volume will revert to its state prior to the Hot Pull.
    D. There is data loss on the remote volume.
    Answer: D

    15. PowerPath PPME with Open Replicator is planned for use in a migration of 172 LUNs. The source array is a Symmetrix 8830; the target array is a DMX-3.
    For PPME-enabled migrations using Open Replicator, what is the configurable maximum number of concurrent replication sessions that can be supported in this configuration?
    A. 16
    B. 128
    C. 256
    D. 512
    Answer: D

    16. What are the steps for the administration of storage in an EMC Replication Manager environment?
    1.Array configuration
    2.Storage pools
    3.Storage discovery
    4.Array discovery
    5.Include storage
    A. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
    B. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
    C. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
    D. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
    Answer: C

    17. What does a PowerPath pseudo-device represent?
    A. A logical path that leads to a single physical device
    B. A logical path set that leads to multiple physical devices
    C. A physical path that leads to multiple logical devices
    D. A path set that leads to a single logical device
    Answer: D

    18. The snap has been mounted for a data validation check. Which statement applies to the TimeFinder/Snap save device?
    A. Can be used when configuring a multi-hop SRDF/AR environment
    B. Save devices must be the same capacity
    C. Used as cache-only virtual device in SRDF/A
    D. Used to hold changes made to the source after snap activation
    Answer: D

    19. If terminating a TimeFinder/Snap copy session, what is the effect on the target host’s ability to access data on the vdev?
    A. By issuing the -symforce option, the data is available to the target host.
    B. The hold on the target device is removed while pairing information remains on the Symmetrix.
    C. The information is no longer available on the virtual device.
    D. The information is still available on the virtual device to the target host.
    Answer: C

    20. The customer has experienced a transient network failure on their SRDF links. What is the Star state after the failure?
    A. Cleanup
    B. Disconnected
    C. PathFail
    D. Reset
    Answer: C

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  • Aug 3

    EMC认证e20-510考试题库介绍

    考试代号: e20-510
    问题数量:253 Q&As

    更新时间: 2009-09-08
    注册地点: Prometric/Pearson VUE
    题库全称:business continuity specialist exam

    免费e20-510题库Demo赏析

     
     
    Exam : EMC E20-510
    Title : Emc Technology Foundations -Clariion

    1. What happens when you perform a consistent activation of a TimeFinder/Clone session?
    A.The clones are write protected
    B.Multi-session consistency is invoked
    C.Creates a new TimeFinder/Clone consistency group
    D.The Enginuity Consistency Assist feature (ECA) is invoked
    Answer: D

    2. What is a Protected BCV Restore operation?
    A.Restores a BCV to a Standard but does not propagate Standard writes to the BCV
    B.Following the Restore operation, the BCV is automatically split from the Standard to assure it is protected
    C.Incrementally restores the contents of the BCV to a standard with which the BCV has no prior relationship
    D.Restores a BCV to a Standard and allows propagation of Standard writes to the BCV but not the BCVs mirror
    Answer: A

    3. Which statement is correct with regard to EMC Replication technologies?
    A.TimeFinder/Snap utilizes Virtual Devices (VDEVs)
    B.TimeFinder/Clone Save Device Pool is accessible to the host
    C.TimeFinder/Clone creates space efficient pointer based copies
    D.R2 volumes from an SRDF/A pair can act as TimeFinder/Snap sources
    Answer: A

    4. What would be the result of creating a symsnap session?
    A.Target virtual device is made Not Ready (NR)
    B.Source virtual device is made Not Ready (NR)
    C.Source device is placed into a Read-only state
    D.Target virtual device is Read/Write (RW) enabled
    Answer: A

    5. When in a Failed Over state, which function could you use before failing back to the R1?
    A.merge
    B.update
    C.refresh
    D.resume
    Answer: B

    6. If the customer’s Recovery Point Objective is 120 seconds, what should the SRDF/A cycle time be in seconds?
    A.30
    B.60
    C.120
    D.240
    Answer: B

    7. When in a Split state, what is the status of an SRDF R1 and R2 pair from the host’s perspective?
    A.R1 is Not-Ready and R2 is Read/Write
    B.R1 is Read/Write and R2 is Read/Write
    C.R1 is Read/Write and R2 is Write-Disabled
    D.R1 is Write-Disabled and R2 is Read/Write
    Answer: B

    8. A Symmetrix with a direct attached host contains 20 R1 volumes in 2 RDF groups with 10 volumes in each. If you were running SRDF/S, what is the maximum number of SYMCLI groups that you can create to manage the RDF volumes?
    A.1
    B.2
    C.10
    D.20
    Answer: D

    9. Which Replication Manager role defines Application Sets, Jobs, and Schedules?
    A.UNIX Administrator
    B.Storage Administrator
    C.Database Administrator
    D.Replication Administrator
    Answer: C

    10. Click the Exhibit button.
    The graphic shows a single-hop SRDF/AR configuration. What is the correct state for the identified TimeFinder and SRDF device pairs prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
    A.1 – synchronized; 2 – split; 3 – split
    B.1 – split; 2 – synchronized; 3 – split
    C.1 – synchronized; 2 – suspended; 3 – split
    D.1 – synchronized; 2 – suspended; 3 – synchronized
    Answer: C

    11. When in a Failed Over state, which function could you use before failing back to the R1?
    A.merge
    B.update
    C.refresh
    D.resume
    Answer: B

    12. What is the default load balancing policy for hosts connected to a third party storage array with unlicensed PowerPath software?
    A.Adaptive
    B.No redirect
    C.Round robin
    D.Basic failover
    Answer: A

    13. What is the order for an SRDF/A deltaset operation?
    A.1 – Capture, 2 – transmit, 3 – receive, 4 – apply
    B.1 – Send, 2 – receive, 3 – acknowledge, 4 – apply
    C.1 – Capture, 2 – send, 3 – apply, 4 – acknowledge
    D.1 – Send, 2 – acknowledge, 3 – apply, 4 – commit
    Answer: A

    14. What is the default re-synchronization process after an initial SRDF establish has been performed?
    A.Full establish
    B.Adaptive copy
    C.Incremental establish
    D.Restore changed tracks
    Answer: C

    15. What is the default re-synchronization process after an initial SRDF establish has been performed?
    A.Full establish
    B.Adaptive copy
    C.Incremental establish
    D.Restore changed tracks
    Answer: C

    16. Which symcli command is used to define an SRDF relationship between dynamic SRDF enabled devices?
    A.symdg create
    B.symrdf create
    C.symdg createpair
    D.symrdf createpair
    Answer: D

    17. After an SRDF restore operation is initiated, what happens?
    A.R2 becomes the production volume
    B.Data copy is initiated from the R1 to the R2 devices
    C.Status of the R1 device is changed to "write disabled"
    D.Host attached to the source Symmetrix has full read/write access to the R1 devices
    Answer: D

    18. When in a Split state, what is the status of an SRDF R1 and R2 pair from the host’s perspective?
    A.R1 is Not-Ready and R2 is Read/Write
    B.R1 is Read/Write and R2 is Read/Write
    C.R1 is Read/Write and R2 is Write-Disabled
    D.R1 is Write-Disabled and R2 is Read/Write
    Answer: B

    19. A Symmetrix with a direct attached host contains 20 R1 volumes in 2 RDF groups with 10 volumes in each. If you were running SRDF/S, what is the maximum number of SYMCLI groups that you can create to manage the RDF volumes?
    A.1
    B.2
    C.10
    D.20
    Answer: D

    20. A customer uses a point-in-time copy of data for a performance-sensitive application at 10:00 p.m. The time needed to copy the data from source to target is 30 minutes. Which solution would you recommend?
    A.Create and activate the clone with the background copy (-copy) option at 10:00 p.m.
    B.Create and activate the clone in the deferred copy mode (default) at or before 9:30 p.m.
    C.Create a clone with the Copy (-copy) option at or before 9:30 p.m. Activate the clone at 10:00 p.m.
    D.Create a TimeFinder/Clone session with the Precopy (-precopy) option at or before 9:30 p.m. Activate the clone at 10:00 p.m.
    Answer: D

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    免费的e20-510题库PDF下载链接

    EMC e20-510学习指南

    Specialist认证 e20-510考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性,因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。EMC认证 e20-510学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试e20-510考试都已经被修改过了,删掉了许多过时的东西,而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候,就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。EMC认证 e20-510是在IT行业的知名品牌,所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试,你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

    想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心,而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下,它的e20-510考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度,最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识,不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才,其他e20-510考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的,所以要找一些好的资源才行。

    Examsoon考题大师e20-510试题都是考试原题的完美组合,覆盖率95%以上,答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出,正确率100%,只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加e20-510考试,保证您一次轻松通过考试;

    售后服务第一!我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功,必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务,只有客户满意了,才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨;

 

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