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免费ee0-011题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : Exam Express EE0-011
Title : ATG Certified Relationship Management Developer

1. What is the purpose of the property-type attribute in an SQL repository definition?
A. to specify a custom property type
B. to specify the data type of a property
C. to override the default SQL column type
D. to set the value of a property to given item type
Answer: A

2. What are two advantages of using Item Descriptor Inheritance over independent item descriptors in a repository definition? (Choose two.)
A. Duplicate data across different tables can be avoided.
B. The number of database tables is reduced, simplifying queries.
C. Item descriptors can inherit properties from multiple parent sources.
D. Queries for items with common attributes can be created more easily.
Answer: AD

3. Click the Exhibit button.
What is the output of this JSP?
A. a
B. b
C. a a
D. a b
E. b a
F. b b
Answer: C

4. An online application requires that the value of a user’s security privilege be inherited from the privilege of its parent organization unless a value is specified on a per-user basis. Which repository feature provides the quickest and easiest implementation?
A. RQL filter
B. derived property
C. custom property descriptor
D. item-descriptor inheritance
Answer: B

5. When using programmatic repository data access, each database operation is automatically wrapped in a transaction of which mode?
A. Required
B. Supports
C. Mandatory
D. RequiresNew
Answer: A

6. What is a characteristic of a transient Repository Item property?
A. It holds repository meta-data.
B. It is not stored in the database.
C. It is not cached in the repository.
D. It is stored in an auxiliary database table.
Answer: B

7. Which two are uses of the Repository Query Language? (Choose two.)
A. to pre-load repository caches
B. to remove an item from a repository
C. to perform repository queries in a JSP
D. to retrieve a list of configured repositories
Answer: AC

8. Which cache mode is most appropriate for repositories that are generally read-only, but updated infrequently?
A. locked
B. simple
C. disabled
D. distributed
Answer: D

9. Click the Exhibit button.
What is the order in which the methods in the form handler will be called when the form is submitted?
A. setValue2, setValue1, handleValue2, handleValue1
B. setValue2, handleValue2, setValue1, handleValue1
C. setValue1, setValue2, handleValue1, handleValue2
D. setValue1, handleValue1, setValue2, handleValue2
Answer: D

10. Which two criteria justify selecting localJMS versus sqlJMS for message delivery within a single JVM? (Choose two.)
A. You want low latency.
B. You want high throughput.
C. You want messages delivered instantly and reliably.
D. You want to use a publish-subscribe Distribution Model.
E. You want both sending and receiving to occur in the same transaction.
Answer: AE

11. Click the Exhibit button.
File1.jsp is changed to replace the include directive with the dsp:include tag. Which two other changes should you make so that the behavior of the application remains the same? (Choose two.)
A. rename file2.jspf to file2.jsp
B. add a taglib directive to file2
C. add a dsp:importbean tag to file2
D. add a dsp:param tag to file1.jsp within the body of the dsp:include tag
Answer: BC

12. For asynchronous messaging, the sending and the receiving of messages occurs in _____.
A. the same thread
B. separate queues
C. concurrent requests
D. separate transactions
Answer: D

13. Why should you use serviceLocalParameter() instead of serviceParameter()?
A. to loop parameters
B. to limit the scope of parameters
C. to provide region-specific services
D. to service internationalized content
Answer: B

14. A String property value of a component is defined by properties files in multiple places in the CONFIGPATH. How is its final property value determined?
A. The value defined last in the CONFIGPATH is used.
B. By default, all property values are appended to each other to form the final property value.
C. The first value from the first properties file found in the beginning of the CONFIGPATH is used. All other properties files are ignored.
D. Values are determined first by the properties files at the end of the CONFIGPATH, but are overridden by the property values at the beginning of the CONFIGPATH.
Answer: A

15. The IsEmpty droplet renders the true open parameter when the value input parameter is _____. (Choose three.)
A. null
B. an Integer and Integer.intValue() == 0
C. an Object array and Object [].length == 0
D. a String and String.equals("") returns true
Answer: ACD

16. What is the purpose of the return value from a form handler handle method?
A. It returns void, so it has no purpose.
B. It indicates whether the form properties should be reset.
C. It prioritizes the order in which handle events are processed.
D. It indicates whether Dynamo should continue processing the page.
Answer: D

17. What is the purpose of the Message Registry?
A. map messages to components
B. register messages with the ACC
C. map JMSTypes to message bean classes
D. allow components to send and receive messages
Answer: C

18. In which file is an application module’s required classes specified?
A. the META.INF file
B. the module’s .jar file
C. the application.xml file
D. the MANIFEST.MF file
E. the J2EEContainer.properties file
Answer: D

19. The type of a repository item property is defined using component-item-type only if the item’s data-type is a collection and _____.
A. its elements are Java primitive types
B. a one-to-many mapping is being described
C. its elements are references to components
D. its elements are references to other repository items
Answer: D

20. Which two statements are true if a repository item type T has a property P that has the cascade="update" attribute set? (Choose two.)
A. Property P can be defined as either a repository item or a Collection of repository items.
B. The cascade="update" attribute is applied recursively to any properties in the items referenced by property P.
C. Anytime that a repository item of type T is updated, all corresponding items referenced by property P are updated.
D. Anytime that a repository item of type T is added to the repository, the corresponding items referenced by property P are also added to the repository.
Answer: AD

免费下载ee0-011题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的Exam Express Certification认证 ee0-011题库，其全名为：(Atg Certified Relationship Management Developer). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载ee0-011题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费ee0-011模拟测试题的下载链接

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想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的ee0-011考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他ee0-011考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

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免费ee0-200题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : Exam Express EE0-200
Title : Certified Landesk 8.5 Engineer Exam

1. Which Column Set Configuration feature allows you to specify a precise primary key value for the selected software?
A. Edit
B. Value
C. Modify
D. Qualify
E. Columns
Answer: D

2. What can be done to limit the amount of bandwidth consumed by a Distribution Package?
A. In the Properties of the Delivery Method, increase the delay between packets
B. in the Properties of the Scheduled Task, increase the delay between packets
C. in the Properties of the Distribution Package, increase the delay between packets
D. in the Properties of the Deployment Package, increase the delay between packets
Answer: A

3. Which three are required to install the LANDesk?Web Components? (Choose three.)
A. Rollup Core
B. DNS Services
C. Microsoft IIS 5.0 or greater
D. MDAC 2.8 or greater
E. .NET Framework 1.1
F. Internet Explorer 6.0 or greater
Answer: CDE

4. Which format is used for importing and exporting the LDAPPL3.INI file from the Software Configuration console?
A. TXT
B. XML
C. CSV
D. HTML
Answer: B

5. Where is the Software Monitoring data stored on the client?
A. in the registry
B. in the invdelta.dat
C. in the ldclient directory
D. in the ldlogon directory
Answer: A

6. An administrator runs a Software Distribution task that fails on 100 computers. You open the task and select Reschedule Failed Computers to rerun the job on these 100 computers. You then select Start Now and click OK to start the job. After starting the job nothing happens for several minutes. What are two possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
A. The database is offline.
B. "Wake Up Computers" is selected.
C. The Intel Scheduler service is not started.
D. You selected "Allow Users to Delay Tasks."
E. SDCLIENT.EXE is not installed on the client computers.
Answer: BC

7. What is the default temporary install directory used during client setup?
A. %temp%
B. C:$ldcfg$
C. C:$ldclient$
D. %windir%temp
Answer: B

8. A multi-file MSI package needs to be distributed silently to your Windows 2000 clients. Which three actions must you take to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. create a Transform file
B. stage the MSI files on a share
C. create a new Distribution package
D. select additional files in the Distribution package
E. add the /q switch to the Install / Uninstall options dialog
F. run setup.exe /A from the installation CD to create an administrative share point
Answer: BCD

9. You have just created a new task using the Manage Scripts tool that incorporates the SYSPREP process. By default. where is the newly created .INF file stored on the Core Server?
A. C:Program FilesIntelDTMscripts
B. C:Program FilesLANDeskOSDScripts
C. C:Program FilesLANDeskManagement Suitelandeskfiles
D. C:Program FilesIntelDTMManagement SuiteLDLogonPMScripts
Answer: C

10. You created a Software Distribution task to install Adobe Photoshop 7 on 125 computers in your company. The job fails with the error "Unable to Access the Package." What is the likely cause of this error?
A. SDCLIENT.EXE is not installed on the clients.
B. The \servershare is not a null session share.
C. The users do not have access to the Web Server distribution folder.
D. The users do not have access to C:Program FilesLANDeskLDClientSDMCache directory.
Answer: B

11. You are planning the installation of LANDesk?Management Suite 8.5. Which four items are the minimum installation requirements that must be met before installing the LANDesk Management Suite 8.5 Core Server? (Choose four.)
A. MDAC 2.8+
B. Domain Controller
C. Internet Explorer 6.0+
D. Windows 2000 Server sp4
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
F. Internet Information Server 5.x+
Answer: ACDF

12. Which two directories contain the trusted certificate hash file (<hashname>.0)? (Choose two.)
A. Keys
B. Utilities
C. LDMain
D. LDLogon
E. LANDesk?
Answer: AD

13. You are planning a new LANDesk?client deployment to 500 Windows 98 workstations. These workstations are members of a single domain, but are physically located in three different buildings. Which deployment method provides the highest success rate with the least amount of administrative work?
A. manual configuration
B. login script-based deployment
C. push-based deployment using the Scheduler service
D. emailing a link to the Core Server’s LDLOGON share and detailed instructions for launching WSCFG32.EXE with the appropriate command line switches
Answer: B

14. You manage a static environment of 300 managed nodes. You distribute four to five software packages a week and want to reduce the amount of network traffic on your network. Which two actions will help reduce the amount of traffic on your network? (Choose two.)
A. using Targeted Multicast?to distribute packages
B. selecting the Use Multicast Domain Discovery option
C. compressing the package using WinZip before distribution
D. targeting only machines in the same subnet for a single task
E. selecting the Use Multicast Domain Discovery and Saving Results option
Answer: AE

15. How can you create a Profile Migration task so an end user can initiate it?
A. From the client, you map a drive to the LDLOGON share on the Core Server and execute LDPROFILE.EXE /UI .
B. From the Management Suite console, Migration Task Wizard creates and deploys a script using Targeted Multicast?
C. From the Management Suite console, Collection Manager creates a user-initiated package and makes it available for a pull distribution.
D. From the client, you map a drive to the LDMAIN share on the Core Server and launch LDPROFILE.EXE with the /GET command line option.
Answer: C

免费下载ee0-200题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的Exam Express Certification认证 ee0-200题库，其全名为：(Certified Landesk 8.5 Engineer Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载ee0-200题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费ee0-200模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的ee0-200题库PDF下载链接

Exam Express ee0-200学习指南

Exam Express Certification认证 ee0-200考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。Exam Express认证 ee0-200学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试ee0-200考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。Exam Express认证 ee0-200是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的ee0-200考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他ee0-200考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师ee0-200试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加ee0-200考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费ee0-071题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : Exam Express EE0-071
Title : Actuate Certified Professionla Developer-release 7 Exam

1. Which method can overriden to select which subreports to execute and which to exclude in a Sequential Section.
A. AddContent( )
B. SelectContent( )
C. SetContent( )
D. ConditionIsTrue( )
Answer: B

2. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to the AcSQLQuerySource for this function. True False
10. You use this class when you need to create a list of objects sorted by one of the objects attributes.
A. AcList
B. AcBTree
C. AcSingleList
D. AcObjectArray
Answer: B

3. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to the AcDBControl for this function. True False
2. When working with sequential section subreports; you must overwrite what two methods on the Report Section of a subreport to retrieve the data stream from the preceding subreport?
A. StartDataStream( )
B. GetDataStream( )
C. GetConnection( )
D. FinishDataStream( )
E. OpenDataStream( )
Answer: AB

4. You use this class when you need to create a list of objects sorted by one of the objects attributes.
A. AcList
B. AcBTree
C. AcSingleList
D. AcObjectArray
Answer: B

5. When working with sequential section subreports; you must overwrite what two methods on the Report Section of a subreport to retrieve the data stream from the preceding subreport?
A. StartDataStream( )
B. GetDataStream( )
C. GetConnection( )
D. FinishDataStream( )
E. OpenDataStream( )
Answer: AB

6. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to the AcConnectionComponent for this function. True False
7. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to few Start Methods for this function. True False
8. Which method can overriden to select which subreports to execute and which to exclude in a Sequential Section.
A. AddContent( )
B. SelectContent( )
C. SetContent( )
D. ConditionIsTrue( )
Answer: B

7. After merging data from multiple data sources, overwrite the _________________ method to define the values to be used to sort the data rows.
A. Fetch( )
B. OrderBy
C. Compare( )
D. Sorting
Answer: C

8. Which data access class should be used when customizing a report to access a csv file?
A. AcQuerySource
B. AcDataAdapter
C. AcDataSource
D. AcDataBaseSource
Answer: C

9. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to few Start Methods for this function. True False
8. Which method can overriden to select which subreports to execute and which to exclude in a Sequential Section.
A. AddContent( )
B. SelectContent( )
C. SetContent( )
D. ConditionIsTrue( )
Answer: B

10. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to the AcReportComponent for this function. True False
4. Which data access class should be used when customizing a report to access a csv file?
A. AcQuerySource
B. AcDataAdapter
C. AcDataSource
D. AcDataBaseSource
Answer: C

免费下载ee0-071题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的Exam Express Certification认证 ee0-071题库，其全名为：(Actuate Certified Professionla Developer-release 7 Exam). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载ee0-071题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费ee0-071模拟测试题的下载链接

免费的ee0-071题库PDF下载链接

Exam Express ee0-071学习指南

Exam Express Certification认证 ee0-071考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。Exam Express认证 ee0-071学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试ee0-071考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。Exam Express认证 ee0-071是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的ee0-071考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他ee0-071考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师ee0-071试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加ee0-071考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费ee0-501题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : Exam Express EE0-501
Title : F5 Big-Ip V4 Exam

1. When administrative users are created, which three access levels can they be granted through the BIG-IP Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. Web Read Only
C. CLI + Web Read Only
D. CLI + Full Web Read / Write
E. CLI + Partial Web Read / Write
Answer: ABD

2. You are using the Setup Utility. Which two statements about the DNS Proxy section are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server is entered here.
B. If the option is chosen, it allows the BIG-IP System to resolve host names for nodes.
C. If the option is chosen, the hostname of an available DNS server must be entered here.
D. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server on the same subnet must be entered here.
Answer: AB

3. Which IP address does the BIG-IP assign itself by default at startup, before the BIG-IP has been configured
A. 10.10.1.245 or 192.168.245.245
B. 192.168.1.127 or 192.168.1.245
C. 192.168.245.245 or 192.168.1.245
D. 172.16.1.245 or 172.16.245.245
Answer: C

4. Which three methods are available for authentication of administrative users logging on to BIG-IP’s web-based Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. Local LDAP database
B. Local Radius database
C. Remote LDAP database
D. Remote Radius database
E. Local master.passwd database
Answer: ACD

5. Which statement is true concerning the configuration of Pools?
A. Each Pool is configured with a primary load balancing method and a backup load balancing method.
B. A Pool cannot be created unless the Virtual Server that will use it already exists.
C. Every Pool is configured with a load balancing method.
D. Once a node is added to one Pool, it cannot be added to any other Pools.
Answer: C

6. Which statement describes normal traffic through a Virtual Server on a BIG-IP?
A. source IP address translated in both initiating and responding packets
B. destination IP address translated in both initiating and responding packets
C. destination IP address translated in initiating packets; source IP address translated in response packets
D. source IP address translated in initiating packets; destination IP address translated in response packets
Answer: C

7. Which of the following parameters can be specified with the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)
A. current time
B. password of the "root" user
C. IP address of an initial Virtual Server
D. IP address restrictions for access to the Configuration Utility
E. self IP addresses
Answer: BDE

8. When a Virtual Server is created, which VLANs are enabled for the Virtual Server by default?
A. all existing VLANs
B. the internal VLAN only
C. the external VLAN only
D. the VLAN used by the default route only
E. None are associated by default. All assignments are explicit.
Answer: A

9. Which BIG-IP log file stores data concerning node status?
A. Status Log (/var/log/status)
B. BIG-IP Log (/var/log/bigip)
C. Monitor Log (/var/log/bigd)
D. System Log (/var/log/messages)
Answer: C

10. Which statement describes the function of the Fallback Host setting in a Pool?
A. If all members of a Pool are unavailable, the client is sent a HTTP redirect to the specified fallback host.
B. If one member of a Pool becomes unavailable, the fallback host is temporarily added to the Pool as a member.
C. The fallback host setting is where the DNS name of the Pool is configured.
D. The fallback host setting is used by the administrator to specify another Pool to use in case all nodes are unavailable.
Answer: A

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-502
Title : F5 Big-Ip V4 Advanced Topics Exam

1. What happens when a NAT has the "internal" VLAN disabled?
A. There is no effect.
B. Traffic arriving on other VLANs cannot be processed by the NAT.
C. Only traffic arriving on the "internal" VLAN is processed by the NAT.
D. The NAT only functions properly if both the client and servers are on VLANs other than the "internal" VLAN.
Answer: D

2. What is the result of entering the following command? bigpipe save
A. The contents of /config/bigip.conf are displayed on the monitor.
B. The current version (in memory) of the BIG-IP Systems’s configuration is written to /etc/bigip.conf.
C. The current version (in memory) of the BIG-IP System’s configuration is written to /config/bigip.conf.
D. The contents of /config/bigip.conf are made the current version (in memory) of the BIG-IP System’s configuration.
Answer: C

3. By default, how frequently are log files rotated?
A. hourly
B. daily
C. weekly
D. There is no default; the administrator sets the frequency.
Answer: B

4. What is the result of entering the following command? bigpipe pool TestPool { lb_method round_robin member 10.10.1.1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80}
A. A new pool is available for association with any Virtual Server.
B. The last Virtual Server defined is associated with the new pool, TestPool.
C. The /config/bigip.conf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named TestPool.
D. Requests sent to this BIG-IP System with a destination port of 80 are load balanced between the members of TestPool.
Answer: A

5. What is required to implement VIP Bounceback configurations?
A. a Network Virtual Server
B. Clients and nodes must be located on separate VLANs.
C. The Virtual Server address must be configured on each node’s loopback adapter.
D. A return path must be enforced through the BIG-IP System for the nodes’ responses to clients.
Answer: D

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免费ee0-065题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : Exam Express EE0-065
Title : Interwoven TeamSite 6.5 Technical Consultant

1. On a Windows 2000 Server, no matter what you do, the "everyone" account always has full control access to all TeamSite content. It is being automatically applied to all new content and areas, and you are unable to remove it. Which one of the following conditions causes the above situation?
A. The TSIMP_hostname account is missing from the TeamSite Web Preview group.
B. There is no webserver_group declared in iw.cfg.
C. The iwserver service is running in debug mode.
D. There is no group named TeamSite Web Preview defined on the TeamSite server.
E. There is no webpreview_group declared in iw.cfg.
Answer: B

2. Where can you find TeamSite release notes?
A. Interwoven’s documentation page (http://www.interwoven.com/documentation/)
B. In a file on the TeamSite CD-ROM
C. Inside the installation package (tarball or InstallShield package)
D. Interwoven does not produce product release notes.
E. Interwoven’s support site (http://support.interwoven.com/)
Answer: E

3. In a default installation, which one of the following tasks is a TeamSite user with the "Editor" role UNABLE to perform?
A. Create a workarea.
B. Create an edition.
C. Merge two conflicting files.
D. Submit files to the Staging area.
E. Remove a job.
Answer: A

4. You try to run a deployment from the TeamSite server to a target Web server and OpenDeploy is unable to connect. Nothing appears in the target Web server’s OpenDeploy log; however, you are able to deploy to a server on the same subnet as the TeamSite server.
What is the cause of the problem described above?
A. A valid encryption key file has not been specified.
B. The OpenDeploy port is blocked at the firewall.
C. The target Web server is running a different operating system than the TeamSite server.
D. TeamSite is not installed on the target Web server.
E. The target Web server is running a different version of OpenDeploy than the TeamSite server.
Answer: B

5. A customer wants to make sure it can do an emergency roll back of its production Web site if it is attacked by hackers. The customer wants to use OpenDeploy to re-deploy directly from TeamSite to perform the emergency rollback. It does not want to have to re-create or re-build any assets as part of this type of emergency rollback. The emergency rollback deployment must deploy exactly the same assets that were on the Web server before the attack.
To insure the above requirement is satisfied, which one of the following types of assets must be versioned in TeamSite?
A. Compressed asset
B. Deployed asset
C. content store asset
D. Image asset
E. Derived asset
Answer: B

6. The customer wants two types of product descriptions. One is for public external view and includes basic product information. The other is for private internal use and contains sales pricing guidelines and strategies. The customer is very concerned that the public data be exactly the same on both types of documents and also wants them to look as much alike as possible.
Based on the above scenario, which one of the following is the right approach?
A. Use one data capture template that gathers all the information and two presentation templates–one for external and one for internal page generation.
B. Use a personalization server to format the document on the fly when the user logs in.
C. Use one data capture template and one presentation template that includes a component template that only displays the private information to internal users based on their user IDs.
D. Use two data capture templates–one for external and one for internal page generation and a single presentation template.
E. Use two completely different template data types–one for external and one for internal page generation, each with its own data capture template and presentation template.
Answer: A

7. For an initial installation of TeamSite, the client is using a Netscape Web server for the TeamSite Web server. GUI administration for the Netscape Web server is not available. Which one of the following files is modified to add document directories to the Netscape Web server in the above scenario?
A. obj.conf
B. httpd.conf
C. access.conf
D. srm.conf
E. iw.cfg
Answer: A

8. How does a TeamSite user change her TeamSite password?
A. The TeamSite user can use the Change Password menu item in ContentCenter to change her TeamSite password.
B. The TeamSite user can use the Preferences option on the VisualPreview tool bar to change her TeamSite password.
C. The TeamSite user can use the command-line tool (CLT) iwpasswd to change her TeamSite password.
D. The TeamSite user can change the operating systempassword, which changes her TeamSite password.
E. A TeamSite administrator must change the password for a TeamSite user.
Answer: D

9. Which of the following can you accomplish with application_custom.xml?
A. Indicate a corporate logo to display in ContentCenter Standard.
B. Remove the tagging step from the ContentCenter Standard wizards.
C. Remove "Tag" links from ContentCenter Standard.
D. Remove ContentCenter Professional from the dropdown on the login page.
E. Change the display name for the "Workflow" tab in ContentCenter Professional.
Answer: B

10. For a default TeamSite installation on Windows to virtualize properly, which one of the following statements about local groups is true?
A. Local groups must be created for each TeamSite role and user accounts added to the local group accounts.
B. A local TeamSite group account must be manually created after installation.
C. Local groups must be created for grouptasks in TeamSite workflow.
D. Local groups must be created according to the configuration in submit.cfg.
E. No action needs to be taken concerning local groups.
Answer: E

11. Which one of the following statements about autoprivate.cfg is true?
A. It uses regular expressions to match full directory paths.
B. The autoprivate.cfg is able to specify different name patterns for different branches.
C. It will not match directory names.
D. Running iwreset after adding a new name pattern to autoprivate.cfg will mark existing files that match that name pattern as private.
E. The character counts used in autoprivate.cfg are expressed in hexadecimal.
Answer: E

12. A TeamSite FormsPublisher presentation template on which you are working will not virtualize correctly during preview. All the image links are broken and all the image SRC attributes are relative to the desired output location for the data type. You have set the directory dir-regex correctly to only allow output to that location. When you generate a file, virtualization works correctly. Many other files in the Web site besides this template use the same image files.
Based on the scenario above, how do you make the preview virtualize correctly with minimum impact on the Web site?
A. Change all the links to the image files to absolute paths in all files in the Web site.
B. Change the directory dir-regex of the data-type to the root of the workarea.
C. Set the preview-dir attribute of the <template> element’s <branch> subelement to the directory path where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
D. In the presentation template, use the <iw_preview> tag to set the preview path to the directory path where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
E. Copy the image files into the data-type’s folder under /templatedata/ and add a proxy remap to redirect all image requests to the data-type’s directory.
Answer: C

13. Why does a proper content management solution take into account employees at all levels in the client company, including content contributors, content administrators, production managers, and executives?
A. It is recommended practice to implement content management with minimal executive involvement. This is the most pragmatic path to satisfying the majority of the employees.
B. Since all the employees want to continue to use the best possible tools, a content management solution that uses an open architecture satisfies all the employees.
C. It is recommended practice to implement content management with little or no change to existing processes. The resulting solution satisfies all the employees.
D. A proper content management solution balances the needs of all the employees in the company.
E. An optimal content management solution can be implemented by the content administrators working together with the production managers to build a prototype.
Answer: D

14. Which one of the following task types is used to run non-interactive automated process steps?
A. CGI
B. User
C. Group
D. External
E. Dummy
Answer: D

15. In a Windows 2000 environment, how do you limit the number of domains available to your TeamSite server?
A. Put the TeamSite server in a different domain.
B. Ensure the limit_domains tag is in the iw.local.cfg file.
C. Make the TeamSite server the Primary Domain Controller.
D. Use the domain_list tag in iw.cfg.
E. Make the TeamSite server a stand alone server.
Answer: D

16. You just installed TeamSite on a Windows 2000 server. When rebooting, the tspostreboot.pl script executes and you receive a message that states that TeamSite was successfully installed; however, you are unable to get the initial login screen at http://localhost/iw.
What is the cause of the problem described above?
A. You are not authorized to use TeamSite.
B. The iwwebd port was not set correctly during installation.
C. The TeamSite users did not install certificates in their browsers.
D. You did not call Interwoven and get a client license key before proceeding.
E. You do not have a secure channel between the TeamSite server and your workstation.
Answer: B

17. You have installed and configured TeamSite on a UNIX server and have re-booted the machine. All the services have started and appear to be working properly, but you are unable to access the ContentCenter login page. Which one of the following is causing the above problem?
A. You did not run the command line tool iwreset after re-booting.
B. You did not reset the password on your TeamSite account before you tried to log on.
C. You do not have write permissions to the password file.
D. You are using a browser that is not supported by Interwoven.
E. Your browser certificate has expired.
Answer: D

18. During a Windows TeamSite installation, which user is automatically added to the master.uid file?
A. The TeamSite Administrator
B. SYSTEM
C. The local user logged on to TeamSite
D. The Domain Administrator
E. TSIMP_TEAMSITE
Answer: B

19. In available_templates.cfg, what is the correct way to limit a workflow’s availability to the "Upload" workarea on the /default/main/www branch?
A. <branch
value="/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload"/>
<branch value="all" include="no"/>
B. <branch
value="/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload"/>
<branch value="all" include="yes"/>
C. <branch
value="/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload"
include="yes"/>
<branch value="all" include="no"/>
D. <branch
value="/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload"/>
<branch value="all" include="yes"/>
E. <branch
value="/default/main/www/[^\/]+/Upload"/>
<branch value="all" include="no"/>
Answer: C

20. Your customer puts most of its content in a directory called htdocs and all of its links are relative to that directory. The customer also puts some commonly used images in a directory called "common/", which is at the same level as "htdocs/", not under it.
The customer sets up a virtual directory to support this on its production Web server and wants to support this in a virtualized workarea.
What proxy configuration do you need in order to support the above scenario?
A. _docroot=htdocs
/common=/common
B. _docroot=htdocs
/common=/htdocs/common
C. docroot=htdocs
/common=/common
D. docroot=/
/htdocs=/htdocs
/common=/common
E. _docroot=/
/htdocs=/htdocs
/common=/common
Answer: A

免费下载ee0-065题库Demo

Examsoon提供最新的Exam Express Certification认证 ee0-065题库，其全名为：(Interwoven TeamSite 6.5 Technical Consultant). 在您决定是否购买之前 可以先下载ee0-065题库的部分演示. Examsoon是全球唯一提供所有IT认证考试题库demo免费下载的厂商 ，以下为免费ee0-065模拟测试题的下载链接

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Exam Express ee0-065学习指南

Exam Express Certification认证 ee0-065考试已经证明了它在全世界的广泛性和重要性，因此明白这项认证考试的世界各地的人必须具备与认证考试相关领域所需的技能和知识。Exam Express认证 ee0-065学习指南的目的是检查考生的能力和他对概念的意识。很多时候练习测试ee0-065考试都已经被修改过了，删掉了许多过时的东西，而那些需求是在考试课程。当应用到时候你所学的知识的时候，就会鉴定出你所学到的东西以及对所学知识的应用是多么的恰到好处。Exam Express认证 ee0-065是在IT行业的知名品牌，所以如果您通过了这样一个知名公司举行的一次考试，你可以想象你将来的事业会做的多么好。

想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的ee0-065考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他ee0-065考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师ee0-065试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加ee0-065考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；

免费ee0-512题库Demo赏析

　
　
Exam : Exam Express EE0-512
Title : Exam Express(r) F5-big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management Advanced

1. A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 that is associated with a load-balancing pool with a single pool member: 10.10.10.1:80. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for all addresses. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what are the source and destination addresses when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 10.10.10.1
B.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 10.10.10.1
C.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 150.150.10.10
D.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 150.150.10.10
Answer: B

2. If a self-IP’s port lockdown is set to "allow 443", which statement describes allowed communication to that address?
A.Access is available to the Configuration Utility.
B.Serial console access is prevented since only port 443 access is allowed.
C.Access may be available via SSH dependent upon the /etc/host.allow settings.
D.The partner BIG-IP will be able to synchronize and mirror connection and persistence information.
Answer: A

3. Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A.Filters cannot prevent application viruses.
B.Filters cannot prevent the BIG-IP synching process from taking place.
C.The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D.In addition to administrator-created filters, there always exists a "deny all" filter that processes traffic last.
Answer: A

4. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the network in the exhibit and the following partial configuration. If a packet arrived on the BIG-IP with a source IP address of 200.10.10.10 and a destination IP address of 150.10.10.75, what would the source IP address of the associated packet be when it arrived on the chosen member of the web_pool?
A.10.10.1.100
B.150.10.10.15
C.200.10.10.10
D.It would be one of the three IP addresses in the web_pool.
E.It would be the floating self-IP address on the internal VLAN of the BIG-IP.
F.There is insufficient information to determine what the source address would be.
Answer: A

5. If a self-IP port lockdown is set to "allow default", which three ports will accept administrative traffic? (Choose three.)
A.SSH
B.DNS
C.HTTP
D.SMTP
E.HTTPS
Answer: ABE

6. Where are settings for user-defined monitors stored?
A./config/bigd.conf
B./config/bigip.conf
C./etc/base_monitors.ha
D./config/bigip_base.conf
E./config/base_monitors.ha
Answer: B

7. Which are immediate results of entering the following command:
b pool TestPool { lb method predictive member 10.10.1.1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80 }
A.A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.
B.All existing virtual servers defined are associated with the new pool, TestPool.
C.The /config/bigip.conf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named TestPool.
D.Requests sent to this BIG-IP System with a destination port of 80 are load-balanced between the members of TestPool.
Answer: A

8. Which file contains the allowed IP addresses for SSH access?
A./etc/hosts.deny
B./etc/sshd_allow
C./etc/hosts.allow
D./etc/sshd_secure
Answer: C

9. As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP. What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A.Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B.In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is synchronized between the systems.
C.The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP addresses as the source system.
D.When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will always connect to the active system.
Answer: C

10. A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what information must be configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)
A.BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
B.BIG-IP must know which functions the program is going to test.
C.BIG-IP must know the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested.
D.BIG-IP must know which node or member the results are to be applied to.
E.BIG-IP must know all services that are running on the system to be tested.
Answer: AD

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-511
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management

1. Assume the bigd daemon fails on the active system. Which three are possible results? (Choose three.)
A.The active system will restart the bigd daemon and continue in active mode.
B.The active system will restart the tmm daemon and continue in active mode.
C.The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.The active system will fail-over and the standby system will go into active mode.
E.The active system will continue in active mode but gather member and node state information from the standby system.
Answer: ACD

2. Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000, 2400, and 5100.
Answer: DE

3. Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A.LDAP
B.OCSP
C.Radius
D.VASCO
E.Active Directory
Answer: ACE

4. Which two must be sent to the license server to generate a new license? (Choose two.)
A.the system’s dossier
B.the system’s host name
C.the system’s base license
D.the system’s registration key
E.the system’s purchase order number
Answer: AD

5. Which action might take place when a failover trigger is detected by the active system?
A.The standby device also detects the failure and assumes the active role.
B.The active device will either restart an offending process, fail-over, or reboot.
C.The active device will wait for all connections to terminate and then fail-over.
D.The standby device will begin processing virtual servers that have failed, but the active device will continue servicing the functional virtual servers.
Answer: B

6. Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place if the fail-over cable is connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network due to external network problems?
A.If network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.
B.Whether or not network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will stay in standby mode.
C.Whether or not network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.
D.If network fail-over is enabled, the standby system will go into active mode but only until the network recovers.
Answer: B

7. Which user-type has access to change member states, but not to add or delete objects from the configuration?
A.Guests
B.Operators
C.Power Users
D.Administrators
Answer: B

8. Which two profile types would be required with a virtual server so that cookie persistence is enabled? (Choose two.)
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.HTTP
D.WWW
E.source address persistence
Answer: AC

9. Which three files/data items are included in a BIG-IP backup file? (Choose three.)
A.the BIG-IP license
B.the BIG-IP log files
C.the BIG-IP host name
D.the BIG-IP administrative addresses
Answer: ACD

10. A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are appropriate? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Answer: BD

11. Which statement is true regarding fail-over?
A.Hardware fail-over is disabled by default.
B.Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C.If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role.
D.By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.
Answer: B

12. What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP’s management port?
A.192.168.1.245/16
B.192.168.1.245/24
C.192.168.245.245/16
D.192.168.245.245/24
Answer: B

13. Given that VLAN Fail-Safe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG-IP’s external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results?
A.The active system will note the failure in the HA table and may reboot.
B.The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
C.The active system will fail-over and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIG-IP is the cause for the network failure.
Answer: A

14. Which three processes or systems can be monitored and used as fail-over triggers in a redundant pair configuration? (Choose three.)
A.bandwidth utilization
B.CPU utilization percentage
C.VLAN communication ability
D.switchboard packet processing ability
E.pool member packet processing ability
Answer: CDE

15. The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.
A.Neither the pool nor it’s members or nodes has any monitor assigned.
B.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and all of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
C.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and some of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
D.A system-wide monitor has tested all nodes successfully, but the pool’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.
Answer: B

16. Which two F5 switch platforms always have both a compact flash and a hard drive? (Choose two.)
A.1000
B.1500
C.2400
D.3400
E.5100
F.6400
Answer: DF

17. When initially configuring the BIG-IP System using the config tool, which three parameters can be set? (Choose three.)
A.the netmask of the management port
B.the host name of the management port
C.the IP address of the management port
D.the default route for the management port
E.the port lockdown of the management port
Answer: ACD

18. When network fail-over is enabled, what is the interaction with the fail-over cable?
A.The fail-over cable voltage always takes precedence over network fail-over.
B.The fail-over cable status is ignored. Fail-over is determined by the network status only.
C.Either a network failure or loss of voltage across the fail-over cable will cause a fail-over.
D.A network failure will not cause a fail-over as long as there is a voltage across the fail-over cable.
Answer: D

19. Assuming other fail-over settings are at their default state, what would occur if the fail-over cable were to be disconnected for two seconds and then reconnected?
A.As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur.
B.Nothing. Fail-over due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than six seconds.
C.When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode.
D.When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored, both systems will maintain active mode.
Answer: C

20. Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)
A.serial console access
B.SSH access to the management port
C.SSH access to any of the switch ports
D.HTTP access to the management port
E.HTTP access to any of the switch ports
F.HTTPS access to the management port
G.HTTPS access to any of the switch ports
Answer: ABF

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-426
Title : Packeteer Certified Specialist

1. Why would the Failover feature in Setup be configured?
A. to detect if a Frame Relay PVC has failed and to adjust the link speed as appropriate
B. to detect if a site router’s primary link has failed and to adjust the link speed as appropriate
C. to detect if a site router has failed and to configure a new site router IP address and link speed
D. to detect if a WAN router has become unavailable and to djust the total link speed as appropriate
Answer: B

2. Using the exhibit provided, what PacketShaper feature can be enabled to ensure an Ethernet switch that forms a branch office LAN is able to detect if the router fails?
A. Failover
B. Bypass mode
C. Link-State Mirroring
D. Bridge Pass-through
Answer: C

3. What is the purpose of configuring direct standby?
A. to configure PacketShapers in one-armed mode
B. to monitor a connected router’s WAN interface(s)
C. to configure PacketShapers in a redundant topology
D. to configure PacketShapers to participate in routing decisions
Answer: C

4. What is the correct procedure to install a LAN Expansion Module in a PacketShaper for enabling direct standby?
A. Install in the lowest slot and use the inside port.
B. Install in the lowest slot and use the outside port.
C. Install in the most upper slot and use the inside port.
D. Install in the most upper slot and use the outside port.
Answer: D

5. What is true about PacketShaper in a watch mode configuration? (Choose THREE)
A. PacketShaper is not cabled inline with the router.
B. PacketShaper does not perform any traffic shaping.
C. PacketShaper does not enforce policies and partitions on classes.
D. PacketShaper matches traffic to existing classes but does not perform auto-discovery.
E. PacketShaper cannot be used to identify network traffic, measure response times, track bandwidth utilization, notify conditions of interest, or report on the performance of applications.
Answer: ABC

6. What best defines the functionality of Link State Mirroring?
A. PacketShaper will bring down the second port of a NIC pair if the first goes down.
B. PacketShaper mirrors data from an active interface set to a selected port to allow an external analyzer to be connected to take a packet trace.
C. PacketShaper duplicates data from an active interface and sends out the mirror port to the partner PacketShaper configured as the hot standby partner.
D. PacketShaper duplicates data from an active interface and sends out the mirror port to the partner PacketShaper configured as the direct standby partner.
Answer: A

7. PacketShaper is located at a branch office with a 256 Kbps WAN connection to the corporate office. A dedicated application server (IP address 192.168.10.10) resides at the corporate office and communicates via Port 1007 on the client side.
When creating a class in the browser interface, what matching rules would classify this traffic? (Choose TWO)
A. single matching rule with a value of 1007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field
B. single matching rule with a value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Outside Name field
C. single matching rule with a value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Inside Address field
D. single matching rule with a value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Outside Address field
Answer: AD

8. What criteria can be specified in a matching rule? (Choose THREE)
A. SSL URL
B. Set shaping Off
C. Diffserv marking
D. Set discovery On
E. VLAN identification
F. Application-specific criteria
Answer: CEF

9. Two specific classes need to be created; a Citrix class that matches traffic by client name, and an HTTP class that matches traffic by user-agent and URL. What command will help determine what should be included in the matching rules?
A. traffic flow
B. traffic history
C. class criteria
D. class capture-IDs
Answer: C

10. What best describes the capabilities available as part of the Packeteer unit high availability feature? (Choose TWO)
A. traffic discovery
B. automatic data back-up
C. non-inline traffic monitoring
D. automatic link capacity adjustment
E. insertion in redundant network topologies
Answer: DE

11. What feature can be used to modify the amount of bandwidth available to an application based on the time of day?
A. Compression
B. Event Notification
C. Adaptive Response
D. Command Scheduling
Answer: D

12. What class will automatically be at the highest point in the tree?
A. NetBIOS-IP
B. The Default bucket
C. TCP Discovered_Port_123
D. Any class with an IP address
E. HTTP which was auto-discovered
Answer: D

13. PacketShaper is located at a branch office with a 256 Kbps WAN connection to the corporate office. The administrator wants to classify traffic based on a series of port numbers (6005 through 6007) that the application server at the corporate office listens on.
When creating the class in the browser interface, what matching rules can classify this traffic? (Choose TWO)
A. single matching rule with a value of 6005-6007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field
B. single matching rule with a value of 6005-6007 listed in the Outside Port(s) field
C. single matching rule with a value of 6005, 6006, 6007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field
D. three different matching rules with a value of 6005, 6006, 6007 (separately for each of the three) listed in the Outside Port(s) field
Answer: BD

14. What type of control features can be configured for folders?
A. Policies
B. Partitions
C. Policy Inheritance
D. Traffic Discovery within Class
Answer: B

15. What can a policy be applied to?
A. folder classes
B. class with children
C. class with no children
D. any class on the class tree
Answer: C

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想要通过这个考试当然存在很多困难。你所要做的就是准备好充足的勇气和信心，而这些都来源与你平时训练的好坏.建议大家可以去Examsoon这个网站看一下，它的EE0-426考试是为了测试您在这方面的知识的掌握程度，最好的部分是它可以使你不断更新你所学的知识，不断进步。如果你知道所有的概念和如何使用他们的时候才是你真正掌握了Examsoon的用意。这门考试检查了您的能力和一旦你通过这次考验你将成为最优秀的人才，其他EE0-426考试的Examsoon结算值得注意的影响就是你的薪水将直线上升这大概也是每个人都希望获得的，所以要找一些好的资源才行。

Examsoon考题大师EE0-426试题都是考试原题的完美组合，覆盖率95％以上，答案由多位专业资深讲师原版破解得出，正确率100％，只要您使用Examsoon的考试题库参加EE0-426考试，保证您一次轻松通过考试；

售后服务第一！我们相信要想在当今时代取得成功，必须为广大用户提供全套的周到细致的全程优质售后服务，只有客户满意了，才能发展。客户至上是Examsoon考题大师的一贯宗旨；